湖北省武汉市部分重点中学2023-2024学年高二下学期期末联考英语试卷含答案

武汉市部分重点中学2023—2024学年度下学期期末联考高二英语试卷本试卷共10页,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。考试时间:2024年6月26日下午14:00-16:00祝考试顺利注意事项:1.答题前,先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上,并将准考证号条形码贴在答题卡上的指定位置。2.选择题的作答:每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。3.非选择题的作答:用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。4.考试结束后,请将本试卷和答题卡一并上交。第一部分听力（共两节,满分30分）第一节（共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.Whatisthewomanbusydoing?A.Takingdanceclasses.B.Finishingreports.C.Preparingforalongrace.2.Whatdoesthemanthinkofhisjob?A.It'senjoyable.B.It'sboring.C.It'sworrying.3.Whatisthewomanmainlydoing?A.Sharingexperienceincheckingpricelabels.B.Givingtipsonwashingclothesproperly.C.Praisingtheman'slaundryservice.4.WhomightSarahbe?A.AnHRdirector.B.Asaleswoman.C.Anaccountant.5.Howdidthemangotoworktoday?A.Onfoot.B.Bysubway.C.Bycar.第二节（共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。6.Whyisthewomanunwillingtogetelectroniclocks?A.Theyaretooexpensive.B.Shemightforgetthepassword.C.Theymayhavesometechnicalproblems.7.Whatdoesthemansuggestdoing?A.Pickingatopbrand.B.Carryingasparetraditionalkey.C.Downloadingaspecialmobileapp.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。8.WhathasimpressedLisamostaboutherdormitorylife?A.Havingdiscussionsoncourses.B.Watchinglate-nightmovies.C.TakingpartinDIYprojects.9.WhathasLisalearnedfromherdormitorylife?A.Calmness.B.Independence.C.Responsibility.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。10Whatsubjectdoesthemanteach?A.Worldhistory.B.Literature.C.Science.11.Howdoesthemanhelpstudentsengageinpreservation?A.Byholdingsomecompetitions.B.Byorganizingfieldtripstomuseums.C.Byencouragingthemtodovolunteerwork.12.Whatdoesthewomanthinkofpreservingculturalheritage?A.Itteachespeopleaboutdiversity.B.Itconnectspeopletotheirroots.C.Itpositivelyinfluencesthefuture.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。13.Whatistheman'sfirstpieceofadviceforthewoman?A.Settingoffatherownspeed.B.Wearingahelmetatalltimes.C.Exploringdifferentroutes.14.Wheredoesthemannormallygocycling?A.Alongthecoast.B.Inthenearbypark.C.Inthemountains.15.Whatisthelongestdistancethemanhascycled?A.50kilometers.B.100kilometers.C.150kilometers.16.Whydoesthemanenjoygrouprides?A.Theyhelpbreakhiscyclingrecord.B.Theygivehimasenseofbelonging.C.Theyusuallyinvolveintensecompetition.听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。17.Whatwasmentionedintheopenletter?A.TheconcernaboutAIaffectingwriting.B.TheimpactofAlonsciencefictionfilms.C.ThebenefitsofAlinthefieldofwriting.18.WhatisthemaintopicofthebookHum?A.Afact-checkingprogram.B.ApoetworkingwithAI.C.AstoryofJoblossduetoAI.19.WhoisRyanDoherty?A.Agovernmentworker.B.Adoctor.C.Adirector.20.WhichworkwascreatedwiththehelpofAI?A.Sike.B.DeathofanAuthor.C.InOurLikeness.第二部分阅读理解（共20小题,每小题2.5分,满分50分）第一节（共15小题,每小题2.5分,满分37.5分）阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。AMusicisuniversal.Takeamomenttothinkaboutwhatmusicyoulikeasyoureadourbeginners’guidetothehistoryofmusic.MiddleAgesTheMiddleAges,whichrangesfromthe6thcenturytothe16thcentury,featuredmedieval(中世纪的)music.Duringthistime,thereweretwogeneraltypesofmusicstyles—themonophonicandthepolyphonic.ThemainformsofmusicincludedGregorianchantingandplainchant.ClassicalPeriodThemusicformsandstylesoftheClassicalperiod,whichrangesfrom1750to1820,arecharacterizedbysimplermelodiesandformslikethesonatas.Duringthistime,themiddleclasshadmoreaccesstomusic.Socomposersbegantocreatemusicthatwaseasiertounderstand.Mostespecially,MozartwrotehisfirstsymphonyandBeethovenwasbornduringthisperiod.RomanticPeriodHistoriographersdefinetheRomanticmusicperiodtobefrom1800to1900.MusicformsoftheRomanticperiodusedmusictotellastoryorexpressanidea.Variousinstrumentsincludingwindinstrumentswereused.Instrumentsthatwereinventedorimprovedduringthistimeincludedthefluteandthesaxophone.The20thCenturyMusicduringthe20thcenturybroughtaboutmanyinnovationsonhowmusicwasperformedandappreciated.Artistsweremorewillingtoexperimentwithnewmusicformsandusedtechnologytoimprovetheircompositions.The20thcenturymusichasvariousstyles.1.InwhichperiodwereMozart’scompositionscreated?A.MiddleAges. B.Classicalperiod.C.Romanticperiod. D.The20thcentury.2.WhatcanweknowaboutmusicfromtheRomanticperiod?A.Thisperiodlastedover100years. B.Musiciansonlyusedwindinstruments.C.Musicwasrelatedtoastoryoranidea. D.Themusicformswerehardertounderstand.3.Howdidartistsimprovetheirmusicduringthe20century?A.Byinventingnewinstruments. B.Bypracticingnewmusicstyles.C.Bywritingcomplexcompositions. D.Byimprovingtraditionalmusicstyles.BTexan81-year-oldgoodfriendsEllieHambyandSandyHazeliptouredtheworldin80days,provingthatadventuredoesn’thaveanagelimit.Theirfirststopwasalocationthatchallengesevenmanyexperiencedtravelers:theAntarctic.GettingtothesouthernmostcontinentfirstrequiredcrossingtheDrakePassage.“Foralmosttwodays,wewererockingandrolling,slippingandslidingthroughtheDrakePassageandwewereholdingontodearlife.”Hambysaid.Thevoyage,however,fadedfromtheirmindastheysetfootonthegroundoftheAntarctic,fascinatedbythebreathtakingbeautyofpenguins,icebergsandglaciers.Sincethatfirstventure,thepairhavevisited18countriesacrossallsevencontinents.TheyrodecamelsinEgypt,metelephantsinBali,dancedinNepalandobservedtheNorthernLightsinFinland.Anddespitethechallengesinternationaltravelpresented,thegoodfriendssaidtheyfinishedtheirtripwithoutanyargument.Thoughthey’rebothindependentandstubborn,theyrespectedeachother’sfeelings.Andwhattheyrememberthemostarethepeoplethattheyencountered.“Wegottoknowsomeofthemostwonderful,kindest,friendliestpeople.Wejusthavefriendsnowallovertheworldthatwelovedearly.”Hambysaid.Thetwosharedacrucialpieceofadvicefortravelersworryingaboutthelanguagebarrierontheirownadventure.“Youknow,peopleoftenaskusaboutit.”saidHamby.“Wetellthemthere'soneuniversallanguage,andthat’sthesmile.WefounditworkedwondersbecausewewereoftenawarethatEnglishwasnotalwaysspokenandthatthatcouldcoveralllanguages.”Theyalsoencouragedotherolderpeoplenottoletageholdthemback.Asidefromsomeminorchangesinplans—likedecidingnottorideamotorbikeinBalibecauseofconcernsaboutfalling-theiragedidn’taffecttheirjourneyabroad.Theysaidtheyfeltconfidentthatiftheywereinjuredduringtheirtrip,theirchildrenwouldhavebeenatpeaceknowingthattheyweredoingwhattheywanted.AndHazelipdescribed81astheperfectagetoembarkonatrip.“Gettingolderdoesgiveusalittlebitofwisdomofmakingdecisions.”shesaid.4.WhatmightthepairthinkoftheirtriptotheAntarctic?A.Challengingbutworthy. B.Expensivebutexciting.C.Interestingbutfruitless. D.Unpleasantbutimpressive.5.Whatisthehighlightofthepair’sadventuresforthemselves?A.Learningaboutdifferentcultures.B.Meetingnicepeoplealongtheway.C.Experiencingmanychallengingactivities.D.Avoidingconflictsdespitetheirstubbornnature.6.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“that”inparagraph4referto?A.English. B.Thepair’sadvice.C.Thesmile. D.Thelanguagebarrier.7.Whatcanweinferaboutthepairfromthelastparagraph?A.TheyoncefelloffamotorbikeinBali.B.Theirfamilyunderstoodandsupportedthem.C.Theyregrettednotexploringtheworldearlier.D.Theirwisdomsavedthemlotsoftimeonthetrip.CSwedishMidsommar,alsoknownasMidsummer,isabelovedholidayinSwedenthatmarkstheSummerSolstice,thelongestdayoftheyear.Thisusuallytakesplacearoundmid-JuneintheNorthernHemisphere.WithMidsummerbeingthelongestdayoftheyear,itwasoftenconsideredamagicalnighttotheagriculturalsocietywithinSweden.Fullofmysteryandenchantment(魅力)it’sbelievedtobeatimewhenplantsgainedhealingpowersandwereusedtopredictthefuture.Today,itismoreaboutcelebratingthebeginningofsummerandthegoodtimesahead.Likeallmajorholidays,Midsummerfocusesonsharingfoodanddrinkswithlovedones.TraditionalSwedishdishesyou’llfindonaMidsummertableincludeherringinallformsservedwithchivesandsourcream,boilednewpotatoeswithfreshdill,curedsalmon,rusticbreads,potatodumplings,meatballs,andadessertinvolvingstrawberries.EveryonehastheirownMidsummertraditions,butmanysticktothemoretraditionaloptionswhenitcomestocelebrating.ForagrandMidsummerlunch-party,nocelebrationwouldbecompletewithoutdancingwithflowersinyourhair,singingsongs,whilefeastingonadeliciousselectionofSwedishdishes.AnotherformofcelebratingMidsummerwastheraisingofapolewhichwasthendancedaround.ThislovelytraditionisstillverymuchapartofMidsummercelebrationswiththemaypoledecoratedingarlandsofleavesandfreshflowers.AttheheartofSwedishMidsummerliesthespiritoftogethernessandhumanconnection.Families,friends,andcommunitiesgatherinjoyfulunion,creatingasharedexperiencethatgoesbeyondindividualboundaries.Thedancesaroundthemaypole,thelaughter,andtheheartfeltconversationsproduceasenseofbelongingandinterdependence.Midsummerremindsusofthefundamentalneedforsocialbondsandthefulfillmentgainedfromgenuinehumaninteraction.Itservesasareminderthatinthecomplexitiesofmodernlife,thesimplestconnectionscanbringusdeepjoyandfulfillment.8.WhatcanweknowaboutSwedishMidsummer?A.Itmarksthehottestdayoftheyear. B.Itcelebratesthearrivalofsummer.C.Itisusedtopredictthenearfuture. D.Itisbasedonamysteriousoldtale.9.WhatismainlydiscussedMidsummerinparagraph4?A.Itsdishes. B.Itsorigins. C.Itscustoms. D.Itsinfluences.10WhatisthesignificanceofcelebratingMidsummer?A.Learningthevalueofteamwork. B.Appreciatingthewarmthofunity.C.Keepingintouchwitholdfriends. D.Passingonthetraditionallifestyle.11.Inwhichpartofamagazinemayyoureadthispassage?A.Culture. B.Wellbeing. C.Event. D.Fashion.DSincethestartoftheindustrialrevolution,therehavebeenthreatsthatnewmachines—frommechanizedlooms(织布机)tomicrochipswouldtakehumanjobs.AMarchreportfromGoldmanSachsestimatedthatAIcapableofcontentgenerationcoulddoaquarterofalltheworkcurrentlydonebyhumans.AcrosstheEuropeanUnionandtheUS,thereportfurthernotes,300millionjobscouldbelosttoautomation.Thankfully,it’snotallbadnews.Theexpertsissuetheirwarningswitharelief:therearestillthingsAIisn’tcapableof—tasksthatinvolvedistinctlyhumanqualities,likeemotionalintelligenceandoutside-the-boxthinking.“Ithinktherearegenerallythreecategoriesthatwillremainunaffectedinthecomingfuture.”saysMartinFord,arelatedauthor.“Thefirstwouldbejobsthataregenuinelycreative:you’renotengagedinrepetitiveworkorjustrearrangingthings,butyou’regenuinelycomingupwithnewideasandbuildingsomethingnew.”Thatdoesn’tnecessarilymeanalljobsthatareconsidered“creative”aresafe.Infact,thingslikegraphicdesignandvisualart-relatedrolesmaybeamongthefirsttogo.Basicalgorithmscandirectarobottoanalyzemillionsofimages,allowingAItorapidlyacquireasenseofbeauty.“Butthere’ssomesecurityinotherkindsofcreativity,inscience,andmedicineandlawpeoplewhosejobiscomingupwithanewlegalstrategyorbusinessstrategy.”saysFord.“Thesecondcategory,”hecontinues,“isjobsthatrequirecomplicatedinterpersonalrelationships.”Hepointstonurses,businessconsultantsandinvestigativejournalists.“Thesearejobstointeractinthekindsofwaysthatreallybuildrelationships.”hesays.“Thethirdsafezoneisjobsthatreallyrequirelotsofmobilityandproblem-solvingabilityinunpredictableenvironments.”saysFord.Manytradejobs—thinkelectricians,plumbers,engineersandwhereyouneedaverydeepunderstandingofpeople.Ithinkit’llbealongtimebeforeAIhastheabilitythelike—fallunderthisumbrella.“Thesearethekindsofjobswhereyou’redealingwithanewsituationallthetime.”headds.Inshort,seekingrolesindynamic,shiftingenvironmentsthatincludeunpredictabletasksisagoodwaytoavoidjoblosstoAI,atleast,forawhile.12.Whathasbeenahistoricalconcernregardingnewmachines?A.Theneedforincreasedhumanskills. B.Thepossibilityofhumanlosingjobs.C.Thefearofincreasedautomationcosts. D.Thepotentialformachinemalfunctions.13.WhatcanweknowfromtheMarchreport?A.AIisnotcapableofcontentgeneration. B.AIcanimitatedistinctlyhumanqualities.C.AIposesnothreattohumanemployment. D.AIhasnooutside-the-boxthinkingabilities.14WhichofthefollowingstatementwillMartinForddisagreewith?A.AllcreativejobsarenotsafefromAI.B.Graphicdesignerstendtobeaffected.C.Problem-solvingjobswillremainunaffected.D.Jobsfocusingonrepetitivetaskswillstillhaveaplace.15.Whatistheauthor’sattitudetowardsthepotentialjoblosscausedbyAI?A.Optimistic. B.Pessimistic. C.Indifferent. D.Uncertain.第二节（共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分）阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项;选项中有两项为多余选项。Organizingyourroomcanhelpyoufeelcalmerandincontrolofyourlife.Goingaboutyourdaywillbemucheasierifyouknowexactlywhereeverythingis.Youwillnothavetowastetimesearchingforyourfavoritepairsofjeans.___16___.Takeallofyourbelongingsoutoftheircurrentlocations.___17___,butifyoureallywanttoorganizeyourroom,youwillhavetostartfromthebeginning.Thoughyoumaybesurprisedbythegiantpileofmessyou’vecreatedonyourfloor,deskorbed,don’tworry.You’llfindtherightplaceforeverythingsoonenough.Organizeyourbelongings.Beforeyoubegintofigureoutwhereeverythingshouldgo,youshouldgetanumberofboxesfordifferentpurposes.Boxesarebestbecauseyoucanjustrecyclethemwhenyou’redoneorganizingandwon’thavetodealwithmorethings.___18___.Trytogetridofasmanyitemsaspossible.Thisisanimportantstep.ThoughyoumaywanttothroweverythingintheKeepbox,orhaveputeverylastextraitemintheStorebox,thiswon’thelpyougetorganized.Youneedtodosomesearchingtofigureoutwhatyoureallyneedinyourroomrighttherewhereyouspendyourtime.___19___.Thelessthingsyouhave,theeasieritwillbetoorganizeyourbedroom.___20___Nowthatyou’veorganizedyourroom,youcanbegintogetridofallthethingsyoudon’tneed,throwawaytheRubbishboxandgivetheDonateboxtothecharityorganization.Thesooneryougetridoforstoretheotherboxes,theeasieritwillbetomoveonwithyourorganization.ARememberthatlessreallyismoreB.PutalltheboxesintherightplaceC.HereisthefirststepforyoutoorganizeyourroomD.ThiscouldhelpyousortoutdifferentitemsintheroomEThismayseempainfulandlikeyou’recreatingabiggermessF.MakeanewplantothrowawaytheseboxesassoonaspossibleG.SticktosmallpiecesofpaperwithKeep,Store,Donate,andRubbish第三部分语言运用（共两节,满分30分）第一节（共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分）阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。LasseStolley,a17-year-oldGermanteen,hasbeenlivingontrainsforoverayearandahalf.After___21___hisparentsthathehadfinishedhisschool___22___toallowhimtoleavetheirhome,hewasalreadypacking.Thoughworried,hisparenteventually___23___tohisdecision.Thenhebegana___24___train-hoppingadventure.Foroverayearandahalf,StolleyhastraveledalloverGermany.Duringthedayhe___25___inaseat,workingasaself-employedprogrammer,andsleptonnighttrainsatnight.Hehasbeen___26___thewholeGermanyandhassoldmostofhis___27___inthepastyear,packingwhatwasleftina___28___.Minimalismandresistingtheurgetoacquirenewthingsare___29___partsofhislifestyle.Stolley’slaptopandnoise-cancelingheadphonesprovidesome___30___roomonthetrain.Theearlymonthsofhisadventurewere___31___,ashehadtolearnabouthoweverythingworkedandsometimeshadtoreschedule___32___.LivingontrainsallowshimtovisitalmosteverypartofGermany,fromtheseainthenorthtotheAlpsfora___33___,aswellassomefamousand___34___citieslikeBerlinandMunichtotakeintheirpast.Whennotworkingonhislaptop,Stolley___35___infirst-classcarriagesandmostlyhavemealsatDeutscheBahnwaitingroomsattrainstationsaroundthecountry.21.A.informing B.convincing C.announcing D.serving22.A.appointments B.performances C.inspections D.assignments23.A.sighed B.submitted C.subscribed D.objected24.A.unique B.lonely C.dangerous D.disappointing25.A.sank B.rested C.settled D.suspended26.A.understanding B.exploring C.checking D.remembering27.A.books B.possessions C.clothes D.games28.A.room B.computer C.backpack D.station29.A.typical B.decent C.extra D.essential30.A.private B.public C.tolerant D.restricted31.A.complicated B.adaptable C.available D.tough32A.planes B.jobs C.relations D.trains33.A.hike B.swim C.break D.jog34.A.huge B.modern C.historic D.busy35.A.setsabout B.hangsout C.showsoff D.blocksout第二节（共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分）阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。MangostickyriceisoneofThailand’smostbelovedsummer___36___(dish).Slicesofsweet,ripemango___37___(set)nexttoapileofglutinousricethat’stoppedwithacoconut-basedcreamsauceandalightsprinklingofyellowmung(绿豆)beans.If___38___(do)right,thedishispuremagic,theperfectbalanceofflavorsandtextures.Andfewhaveperfectedthatbalanceaswellas63-year-oldVareeJeensuwan,theundeniablequeenofmangostickyriceinBangkok.HershopinBangkok’sbusydowntown,MaeVaree,___39___(function)wellsince1981.“Wefocus___40___thequalityoftherawmaterials,andeventhesaltusedinthecream,weorderitfromSamutSakorn,”shesays,___41___(refer)toacoastalprovincesouthofBangkok.Thailand’snamdokmai(wateroftheflower)mangoesare___42___mostpopularvarietyforthedish,astheypossessasweetflavorandsmoothtexture.___43___mangoesplaythestarringrole,theotheringredientsarejustasimportant,saysVaree.Inhershop,theyusestickyricegrains___44___(special)selectedfromThailand’snorthernmostprovince,ChiangRai.Forthose___45___justwanttobuywhole,uncutmangoes,Vareeallowsitssupplierstosetupoutsidetheshopandselltheirproducts.第四部分写作（共两节,满分40分）第一节（满分15分）46.假定你是学校文学社社长李华，你邀请到了著名诗人Smith教授作主题为“探索诗歌之美”的专题讲座。请你在讲座前作简要发言，内容包括：1.表示欢迎；2.简要介绍；3.对听众的要求。注意：1.词数80左右；2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________第二节读后续写（满分25分）47.阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。Amylovedtodraw,andherhands,alwaysdirtyfromthepencillead,movedonthepaper,showingthepicturesinhermind.Shewouldsitforhours,lostinart.Treesonherpagesseemedtoswinginanunseenwind,andthefacesshedrewworelifelikeexpressions.Herclotheswereoldandhadmanypatches(补丁),whichwerelaughedatbyherclassmates.TheirlaughterwasaclearcontrasttothequietdignitywithwhichAmycarriedherself.Amy’sfamilydidnothavemuchmoney,buttheylovedeachotherverymuch.HermotherworkedhardatmanyjobstotakecareofthemafterAmy’sfathergotsickanddied.Oneday,theschoolannouncedanartcontest.Theannouncement,withthetheme“NatureandHumanity,”wasmetwithawaveofchildren’sexcitement,Amyinparticular.Theschoolwouldselectthetopthreewinners,andtheheadteacherwouldawardthemprizes.Childrenenthusiasticallyregisteredforthecontestand,afterthoughtfulconsideration,finishedtheirownartpieces.Thecontestorganizersgatheredallsubmissionsoneweeklaterandsetupanexhibitshowcasingeveryparticipant’sworkintheschoolgym.Theschoolgymwasfilledwithviewersasthewallsdisplayedtheeffortsoftheyoungartists.Therewerepaintingsofcolorfullandscapeswherethesunburstthroughthickclouds.Somestudentshadcreatedportraits(肖像)oftheirheroes.Inthisseaofcreativity,onepaintingstoodout.Inthepainting,acommunitygardenwasdrawn,aplacewherepeoplefromdiversebackgroundscametogetherinajointeffort,theirhandsunitedintheactofplantingseedsofhopeandunity:Eachfigurewaspaintedwithsuchcareandattentiontodetailthattheyseemedtostepoffthecanvas,invitingtheviewertojointhemintheirlaboroflove.Theexhibitionwouldlastaweek,andallthestudentsandteacherscouldvotefortheirfavoritework.注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。Paragraph1:Finallycamethedaywhenthewinnerswereannounced.___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Paragraph2:ThechildrenwhohadlaughedatAmystartedtoseeherinanewway.__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________武汉市部分重点中学2023—2024学年度下学期期末联考高二英语试卷本试卷共10页,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。考试时间:2024年6月26日下午14:00-16:00祝考试顺利注意事项:1.答题前,先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上,并将准考证号条形码贴在答题卡上的指定位置。2.选择题的作答:每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。3.非选择题的作答:用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。4.考试结束后,请将本试卷和答题卡一并上交。第一部分听力（共两节,满分30分）第一节（共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.Whatisthewomanbusydoing?A.Takingdanceclasses.B.Finishingreports.C.Preparingforalongrace.2.Whatdoesthemanthinkofhisjob?A.It'senjoyable.B.It'sboring.C.It'sworrying.3.Whatisthewomanmainlydoing?A.Sharingexperienceincheckingpricelabels.B.Givingtipsonwashingclothesproperly.C.Praisingtheman'slaundryservice.4.WhomightSarahbe?A.AnHRdirector.B.Asaleswoman.C.Anaccountant.5.Howdidthemangotoworktoday?A.Onfoot.B.Bysubway.C.Bycar.第二节（共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。6.Whyisthewomanunwillingtogetelectroniclocks?A.Theyaretooexpensive.B.Shemightforgetthepassword.C.Theymayhavesometechnicalproblems.7.Whatdoesthemansuggestdoing?A.Pickingatopbrand.B.Carryingasparetraditionalkey.C.Downloadingaspecialmobileapp.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。8.WhathasimpressedLisamostaboutherdormitorylife?A.Havingdiscussionsoncourses.B.Watchinglate-nightmovies.C.TakingpartinDIYprojects.9.WhathasLisalearnedfromherdormitorylife?A.Calmness.B.Independence.C.Responsibility.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。10Whatsubjectdoesthemanteach?A.Worldhistory.B.Literature.C.Science.11.Howdoesthemanhelpstudentsengageinpreservation?A.Byholdingsomecompetitions.B.Byorganizingfieldtripstomuseums.C.Byencouragingthemtodovolunteerwork.12.Whatdoesthewomanthinkofpreservingculturalheritage?A.Itteachespeopleaboutdiversity.B.Itconnectspeopletotheirroots.C.Itpositivelyinfluencesthefuture.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。13.Whatistheman'sfirstpieceofadviceforthewoman?A.Settingoffatherownspeed.B.Wearingahelmetatalltimes.C.Exploringdifferentroutes.14.Wheredoesthemannormallygocycling?A.Alongthecoast.B.Inthenearbypark.C.Inthemountains.15.Whatisthelongestdistancethemanhascycled?A.50kilometers.B.100kilometers.C.150kilometers.16.Whydoesthemanenjoygrouprides?A.Theyhelpbreakhiscyclingrecord.B.Theygivehimasenseofbelonging.C.Theyusuallyinvolveintensecompetition.听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。17.Whatwasmentionedintheopenletter?A.TheconcernaboutAIaffectingwriting.B.TheimpactofAlonsciencefictionfilms.C.ThebenefitsofAlinthefieldofwriting.18.WhatisthemaintopicofthebookHum?A.Afact-checkingprogram.B.ApoetworkingwithAI.C.AstoryofJoblossduetoAI.19.WhoisRyanDoherty?AAgovernmentworker.B.Adoctor.C.Adirector.20.WhichworkwascreatedwiththehelpofAI?A.Sike.B.DeathofanAuthor.C.InOurLikeness.第二部分阅读理解（共20小题,每小题2.5分,满分50分）第一节（共15小题,每小题2.5分,满分37.5分）阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。AMusicisuniversal.Takeamomenttothinkaboutwhatmusicyoulikeasyoureadourbeginners’guidetothehistoryofmusic.MiddleAgesTheMiddl