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2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语

本试卷共10页,满分120分。考试用时120分钟。

注意事项:1.答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生

号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相

应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力,

选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始,试题序号从“21”开始。

2.作答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案

信息点涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷

±o

3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定

区域内相应位置上;如高改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用

铅笔和涂改液,不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁:考试结束后,将试卷和符题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)

第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

GradingPoliciesforIntroductiontoLiterature

GradingScale

90-100,A;80-89,B;70-79,C;60-69,D;Below60,E.

Essays(60%)

Yourfourmajoressayswillcombinetoformthemainpartofthegradeforthiscourse:Essay1=

10%;Essay2=15%;Essay3=15%;Essay4=20%.

GroupAssignments(30%)

Studentswillworkingroupstocompletefourassignments(作业)duringthecourse.Allthe

assignmentswillbesubmittedbytheassigneddatethroughBlackboard,ouronlinelearningand

coursemanagementsystem.

DailyWork/In-ClassWritingsandTests/GroupWork/Homework(10%)

Classactivitieswillvaryfromdaytoday,butstudentsmustbereadytocompleteshortin-class

writingsortestsdrawndirectlyfromassignedreadingsornotesfromthepreviousclass'

lecture/discussion,soitisimportanttotakecarefulnotesduringclass.Additionally,fromtimetotime

Iwillassigngroupworktobecompletedinclassorshortassignmentstobecompletedathome,both

ofwhichwillbegraded.

LateWork

Anessaynotsubmittedinclassontheduedatewilllosealettergradeforeachclassperioditis

late.Ifitisnotturnedinbythe4thdayaftertheduedate,itwillearnazero.Dailyassignmentsnot

completedduringclasswillgetazero.Shortwritingsmissedasaresultofanexcusedabsencewillbe

accepted.

1.Whereisthistextprobablytakenfrom?

A.Atextbook.B.Anexampaper.C.Acourseplan.D.An

academicarticle.

2.Howmanypartsisastudent'sfinalgrademadeupof?

A.Two.B.Three.C.Four.D.Five.

3.Whatwillhappenifyousubmitanessayoneweekaftertheduedate?

A.Youwillreceiveazero.B.Youwilllosealettergrade.

C.Youwillbegivenatest.D.Youwillhavetorewriteit.

B

Likemostofus,Itrytobemindfuloffoodthatgoestowaste.Thearugula(芝麻菜)wastomake

anicegreensalad,roundingoutaroastchickendinner.ButIendedupworkinglate.Thenfriends

calledwithadinnerinvitation.Istuckthechickeninthefreezer.Butasdayspassed,thearugulawent

bad.Evenworse,Ihadunthinkinglyboughtwaytoomuch;IcouldhavemadesixsaladswithwhatI

threwout.

Inaworldwherenearly800millionpeopleayeargohungry,"foodwastegoesagainstthemoral

grain,“asElizabethRoytewritesinthismonth'scoverstory.It9sjaw-droppinghowmuchperfectly

goodfoodisthrownaway-from“ugly"(butquiteeatable)vegetablesrejectedbygrocerstolarge

amountsofuneatendishesthrownintorestaurantgarbagecans.

Producingfoodthatnooneeatswastesthewater,fuel,andotherresourcesusedtogrowit.That

makesfoodwasteanenvironmentalproblem.Infact,Roytewrites,44iffoodwastewereacountry,it

wouldbethethirdlargestproducerofgreenhousegasesintheworld.”

Ifthafshardtounderstand,lefskeepitassimpleasthearugulaatthebackofmyrefrigerator.

MikeCurtinseesmyarugulastoryallthetime-butforhim,it'smorelike12bonesofdonated

strawberriesnearingtheirlastdays.CurtinisCEOofDCCentralKitcheninWashington,D.C.,which

recoversfoodandturnsitintohealthymeals.Lastyearitrecoveredmorethan807,500poundsoffood

bytakingdonationsandcollectingblemished(有瑕疵)producethatotherwisewouldhaverottedin

fields.Andthestrawberries?Volunteerswillwash,cut,andfreezeordrythemforuseinmealsdown

theroad.

Suchmethodsseemobvious,yetsooftenwejustdon'tthink.4tEveryonecanplayapartin

reducingwaste,whetherbynotpurchasingmorefoodthannecessaryinyourweeklyshoppingorby

askingrestaurantstonotincludethesidedishyouwon'teat,“Curtinsays.

4.Whatdoestheauthorwanttoshowbytellingthearugulastory?

A.Wepaylittleattentiontofoodwaste.B.Wewastefoodunintentionallyattimes.

C.Wewastemorevegetablesthanmeat.D.Wehavegoodreasonsforwastingfood

5.Whatisaconsequenceoffoodwasteaccordingtothetest?

A.Moraldecline.B.Environmentalharm.

C.Energyshortage.D.Worldwidestarvation.

6.WhatdoesCurtin'scompanydo?

AItproduceskitchenequipment.B.Itturnsrottenarugulaintocleanfuel.

C.Ithelpslocalfarmersgrowfruits.D.Itmakesmealsoutofunwantedfood.

7.WhatdoesCurtinsuggestpeopledo?

A.Buyonlywhatisneeded.B.Reducefoodconsumption.

C.Goshoppingonceaweek.D.Eatinrestaurantslessoften.

C

Theelderlyresidents(居民)incarehomesinLondonarebeinggivenhenstolookaftertostop

themfeelinglonely.

Theprojectwasdreamedupbyalocalcharity(慈善组织)toreducelonelinessandimprove

elderlypeople'swellbeing,Itisalsobeingusedtohelppatientssufferingdementia,aseriousillnessof

themind.Staffincarehomeshavereportedareductionintheuseofmedicinewherehensareinuse.

Amongthosetakingpartintheprojectis80-year-oldRuthXavier.Shesaid:"Iusedtokeephens

when1wasyoungerandhadtopreparetheirbreakfasteachmorningbeforeIwenttoschool.

“Iliketheprojectalot.Iamdownthereinmywheelchairinthemorninglettingthehensoutand

downthereagainatnighttoseethey'vegonetobed.^^

"It'sgoodtohaveadifferentfocus.Peoplehavebeenbringingtheirchildrenintoseethehens

andresidentscomeandsitoutsidetowatchthem.Fmenjoyingthecreativeactivities,anditfeels

greattohavedonesomethingusefUL”

Therearenow700elderlypeoplelookingafterhensin20carehomesintheNorthEast,andthe

charityhasbeengivenfinancialsupporttorollitoutcountrywide.

WendyWilson,extracaremanagerat60PenfoldStreet,oneofthefirsttoembarkOKtheproject,

said:"Residentsreallywelcometheideaoftheprojectandthecreativesessions.Wearelooking

forwardtothebenefitsandfuntheprojectcanbringtopeoplehere.”

LynnLewis,directorofNottingHillPathways,said:"Wearehappytobetakingpartinthe

project.Itwillreallyhelpconnectourresidentsthroughasharedinterestandcreativeactivities.”

8.Whatisthepurposeoftheproject?

A.lbensureharmonyincarehomes.B.Toprovidepart-timejobsfortheaged.

C.Toraisemoneyformedicalresearch.D.Topromotetheelderlypeople'swelfare

9.HowhastheprojectaffectedRuthXavier?

A.Shehaslearnednewlifeskills.B.Shehasgainedasenseofachievement.

C.Shehasrecoveredhermemory.D.Shehasdevelopedastrongpersonality.

10.Whatdotheunderlinedwords“embarkon”meaninparagraph7?

A.Improve.B.Oppose.C.Begin.D.Evaluate.

11.Whatcanwelearnabouttheprojectfromthelasttwoparagraphs?

A.Itiswellreceived.B.Itneedstobemorecreative.

C.Itishighlyprofitable.D.Ittakesagestoseetheresults.

D

Humanspeechcontainsmorethan2,000differentsounds,fromthecommon"m"and"a"tothe

rareclicksofsomesouthernAfricanlanguages.Butwhyarecertainsoundsmorecommonthan

others?Aground-breaking,five-yearstudyshowsthatdiet-relatedchangesinhumanbiteledtonew

speechsoundsthatarenowfoundinhalftheworld'slanguages.

Morethan30yearsago,thescholarCharlesHockettnotedthatspeechsoundscalled

labiodentals,suchas"f'and"v”,weremorecommoninthelanguagesofsocietiesthatatesofter

foods.NowateamofresearchersledbyDamianBlasiattheUniversityofZurich,Switzerland,has

foundhowandwhythistrendarose.

Theydiscoveredthattheupperandlowerfrontteethofancienthumanadultswerealigned(对

齐),makingithardtoproducelabiodentals,whichareformedbytouchingthelowerliptotheupper

teeth.Later,ourjawschangedtoanoverbitestructure(结构),makingiteasiertoproducesuch

sounds.

Theteamshowedthatthischangeinbitewasconnectedwiththedevelopmentofagriculturein

theNeolithicperiod.Foodbecameeasiertochewatthispoint.Thejawbonedidn'thavetodoasmuch

workandsodidn'tgrowtobesolarge.

Analysesofalanguagedatabasealsoconfirmedthattherewasaglobalchangeinthesoundof

worldlanguagesaftertheNeolithicage,withtheuseof"f'and'""increasingremarkablyduringthe

lastfewthousandyears.Thesesoundsarestillnotfoundinthelanguagesofmanyhunter-gatherer

peopletoday.

Thisresearchoverturnsthepopularviewthatallhumanspeechsoundswerepresentwhenhuman

beingsevolvedaround300,000yearsago."Thesetofspeechsoundsweusehasnotnecessarily

remainedstablesincetheappearanceofhumanbeings,butratherthehugevarietyofspeechsounds

thatwefindtodayistheproductofacomplexinterplayofthingslikebiologicalchangeandcultural

evolution,44saidStevenMoran,amemberoftheresearchteam.

12.WhichaspectofthehumanspeechsounddoesDamianBlasi'sresearchfocuson?

A.Itsvariety.B.Itsdistribution.C.Itsquantity.D.Its

development.

13Whywasitdifficultforancienthumanadultstoproducelabiodentals?

A.Theyhadfewerupperteeththanlowerteeth.

B.Theycouldnotopenandclosetheirlipseasily.

CTheirjawswerenotconvenientlystructured.

D.Theirlowerfrontteethwerenotlargeenough.

14.Whatisparagraph5mainlyabout?

A.Supportingevidencefortheresearchresults.

B.Potentialapplicationoftheresearchfindings.

C.Afurtherexplanationoftheresearchmethods.

D.Areasonabledoubtabouttheresearchprocess.

15.WhatdoesStevenMoransayaboutthesetofhumanspeechsounds?

A.Itiskeytoeffectivecommunication.B.Itcontributesmuchtoculturaldiversity.

C.Itisacomplexanddynamicsystem.D.Itdrivestheevolutionofhumanbeings.

第二节(共5小题:每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两

项为多余选项。

FitnessMagazinerecentlyrananarticletitled“FiveReasonstoThankYourWorkoutPartner.^^

Onereasonwas:"You'llactuallyshowupifyouknowsomeoneiswaitingfbryouatthegym,“while

anotherread:"16"Withaworkoutpartner,youwillincreaseyourtrainingeffortasthereisa

subtle(微妙)competition.

So,howdoyoufindaworkoutpartner?

Firstofall,decidewhatyouwantfromthatperson.17Ordoyoujustwanttobe

physicallyfit,abletomovewithstrengthandflexibility?Thinkabouttheexercisesyouwouldliketo

dowithyourworkoutpartner.

Youmightthinkaboutpostingwhatyouarelookingforonsocialmedia,butitprobablywon't

resultinausefulresponse.18Ifyouplanonworkingoutinagym,thatpersonmustbelongto

thesamegym.

Mypartnerpostedherrequestonthenoticeboardofalocalpark.Hernoticeincludedwhatkind

oftrainingshewantedtodo,howmanydaysaweekandhowmanyhoursshewantedtospendon

eachsession,andherage.Italsolistedherfavoritesportsandactivities,andprovidedherphone

number.19

Youandyourpartnerwillprobablyhavedifferentskills.20Overtime,bothofyouwill

benefit—yourpartnerwillbeabletoliftmoreweightsandyouwillbecomemorephysicallyfit.The

core(核心)ofyourrelationshipisthatyouwillalwaysbetheretohelpeachother.

A.Yourfirstmeetingmaybealittleawkward.

BAworkoutpartnerusuallyneedstolivecloseby.

C.You'llworkharderifyoutrainwithsomeoneelse.

D.Doyouwanttobeabetterathleteinyourfavoritesport?

E.Howcanyouwriteagood“seekingtrainingpartner“notice?

F.Justacceptyourdifferencesandlearntoworkwitheachother.

G.Anynoticeforatrainingpartnershouldincludesuchinformation.

第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最

佳选项。

Myhusband,ourchildrenandIhavehadwonderfulcampingexperiencesoverthepasttenyears.

Someofour21arefunny,especiallyfromtheearlyyearswhenourchildrenwerelittle.

Once,we22alongChalkCreek.Iwas23thatour15-month-oldboywouldfallintothe

creek(小溪).Itiedaropearoundhiswaisttokeephimneartoourspot.Thatlastedaboutten

minutes.Hewas24.andhiscryingletthewholecampgroundknowit.So25tyinghim

up,Ijustkeptacloseeyeonhim.It26-hedidn'tendupinthecreek.Mythree-year-old,

however,did.

Anothertime,werentedaboatinVallecitoLake.Theskywasclearwhenwe27、but

stormsmoveinfastinthemountains,andthisonequickly28ourpeacefulmorningtrip.The

29pickedupandthunderrolled.Myhusbandstoppedfishingto30themotor.

Nothing.Hetriedagain.No31.Wewerestuckinthemiddleofthelakewithadeadmotor.

Asweallsatthere32.afishermanpulledup,threwusaropeandtowed(拖)usback.We

were33.

Now,everyyearwhenmyhusbandpullsourcamperoutofthegarage,wearefilledwithasense

of34.wonderingwhatcampingfunand35wewillexperiencenext.

21.A.ideasB.jokesC.memoriesD.discoveries

22.A.campedB.droveC.walkedD.cycled

23.A.annoyedB.surprisedC.disappointedD.worried

24.A.unhurtB.unfortunateC.uncomfortableD.unafraid

25.A.duetoB.insteadofC.apartfromD.asfor

26.A.workedB.happenedC.matteredD.changed

27.A.signedupB.calmeddownC.checkedoutD.headedoff

28.A.arrangedB.interruptedC.completedD.recorded

29.A.windB.noiseC.temperatureD.speed

30.A.findB.hideC.startD.fix

31.A.luckB.answerC.wonderD.signal

32.A.patientlyB.tirelesslyC.doubtfullyD.helplessly

33.A.sorryB.braveC.safeD.right

34.A.reliefB.dutyC.prideD.excitement

35.A.failureB.adventureC.performanceD.conflict

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

TheChinesegovernmentrecentlyfinalizedaplantosetupaGiantPandaNationalPark(GPNP).

36(cover)anareaaboutthreetimes37sizeofYellowstoneNationalPark,theGPNP

willbeoneofthefirstnationalparksinthecountry.Theplanwillextendprotectiontoasignificant

numberofareasthat38(be)previouslyunprotected,bringingmanyoftheexistingprotected

areasfbrgiantpandasunderoneauthority39(increase)effectivenessandreduce

inconsistenciesinmanagement.

Afterathree-yearpilotperiod,theGPNPwillbeofficiallysetupnextyear.TheGPNP4()

(design)toreflecttheguidingprincipleofuprotectingtheauthenticityandintegrity(完整性)ofnatural

ecosystems,preservingbiologicaldiversity,protectingecologicalbufferzones,41leaving

behindpreciousnaturalassets(资产)forfuturegenerationsn.TheGPNP'smaingoalistoimprove

connectivitybetweenseparate42(population)andhomesofgiantpandas,and43

(eventual)achieveadesiredlevelofpopulationinthewild.

Giantpandasalsoserve44anumbrellaspecies(物种),bringingprotectiontoahostof

plantsandanimalsinthesouthwesternandnorthwesternpartsofChina.TheGPNPisintendedto

providestrongerprotectionforallthespecies45livewithintheGiantPandaRangeand

significantlyimprovethehealthoftheecosysteminthearea.

第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

46.假定你是校广播站英语节目"TalkandTalk”的负责人李华,请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请

她做一次访谈。内容包括:

1.节目介绍;

2.访谈的时间和话题。

注意:

1.写作词数应为80左右;

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

DearCaroline,

Yourssincerely,

LiHua

第二节(满分25分)

47.阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。

Itwasthedayofthebigcross-countryrun.Studentsfromsevendifferentprimaryschoolsinand

aroundthesmalltownwerewarmingupandwalkingtheroute(路线)throughthickevergreenforest.

IlookedaroundandfinallyspottedDavid,whowasstandingbyhimselfofftothesidebya

fence.Hewassmallfortenyearsold.Hisusualbigtoothysmilewasabsenttoday.Iwalkedoverand

askedhimwhyhewasn'twiththeotherchildren.Hehesitatedandthensaidhehaddecidednottorun.

Whatwaswrong?Hehadworkedsohardforthisevent!

Iquicklysearchedthecrowdfortheschool'scoachandaskedhimwhathadhappened.4iwas

afraidthatkidsfromotherschoolswouldlaughathim,“heexplaineduncomfortably.4<Igavehimthe

choicetorunornot,andlethimdecide.”

Ibitbackmyfrustration(懊恼).Iknewthecoachmeantwell-hethoughthewasdoingtheright

thing.AftermakingsurethatDavidcouldrunifhewanted,Iturnedtofindhimcomingtowardsme,

hissmallbodyrockingfromsidetosideasheswunghisfeetforward.

Davidhadabraindiseasewhichpreventedhimfromwalkingorrunninglikeotherchildren,but

atschoolhisclassmatesthoughtofhimasaregularkid.Healwaysparticipatedtothebestofhis

abilityinwhatevertheyweredoing.ThatwaswhynoneofthechildrenthoughtitunusualthatDavid

haddecidedtojointhecross-countryteam.Itjusttookhimlonger一that'sall.Davidhadnotmisseda

singlepractice,andalthoughhealwaysfinishedhisrunlongaftertheotherchildren,hedidalways

finish.Asaspecialeducationteacherattheschool,IwasfamiliarwiththechallengesDavidfacedand

wasproudofhisstrongdetermination.

注意:

1.续写词数应为150左右;

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.

Wesatdownnexttoeachother,butDavidwouldn?tlookatme.

IwatchedasDavidmoveduptothestartinglinewiththeotherrunners.

2022年高考作文命题规律以及2023年高考备考

默守陈规,亦步亦趋,备考必然步入死胡同;抓住核心,准备科学,备考必然高效有

用!这需要我们必然研究高考命题规律,必然抓住思维核心,必然抓住常考主题,必然功夫

下在平常。

研究2022年高考命题规律

规律一全部考创新。全国甲卷情景独创是创新,可以是艺术创新,也可以是科技创新;

全国乙卷“跨越,再跨越“强调科技创新,强调体育创新,创新才能实现持久跨越;新高考

I卷“本手、妙手、俗手”,本手是基础,妙手是创造,妙手需要创新;新高考n卷“选

择•创造•未来”,选择创新,创造未来。所以2023高考备考创新,仍然适用。

规律二文化情景创设,青年主角创设。传统文化,革命文化,社会主义先进文化,为材

料背景,创设情景。青年如何理解传统文化与革命文化的当代价值,青年如何发扬社会主义

先进文化。备考青年视角,关联文化情景,是最近几年高考热点,也是2023年高考备考热

点。所以2023年高考备考青年视野,仍然有较高价值。

规律三责任担当,青年融入民族复兴,小我融入大我是高考命题重点。全国甲卷青年思

考如何融入时代,直接使用,借鉴化用,情景创造,联系时代热点,思考问题,实现价值;

全国乙卷,青年在时代跨越中跨越,在时代再跨越中担当;新高考I卷“本手、妙手、俗

手”,青年强调本手,实现妙手,在时代中创造价值;新高考口卷”选择•创造•未来“,青

年选择担当,奋斗创新,实现民族复兴。时代与青年关系是热点,青年实现价值是重点。

所以2023年高考备考“青年与时代“,仍然有很强烈的针对性。

抓住不变,科学备考;持之以恒,功夫下在平常。

方法一抓住积累语言不变。

一天积累五个成语,语句名言;两天写6句筋骨句,2段满分段落。

积累成语,运用到作文题目,运用到分论点,运用到素材概括,运用到素材分析。

积累成语:自立自强团结进取永不言弃不辞辛苦坚持不懈

运用举例

传统中国精神并没有在时间的长河中流失,反而越精,越流越深。这种刻在我们骨子里

的精神并不会随外界的变化而变化,不受外界的变化而被影响。在奥运会上,运动员们凭借

“自立自强,团结进取,永不言弃”的精神赢得了荣誉;在科研室里,工作者们凭借“刻苦

钻研”的精神赢得了成果;在炎炎烈日下,医疗人员们“不辞辛苦,坚持不懈”的精神,为防

疫工作做出了巨大的贡献。中国精神存在子生活的各个角落,在属于自己的责任内发挥着尽

自己所能的最大的作用,最终影响了整个中华民族。

积累名言,仿写名言,运用到题目,运用到开头结尾,运用到素材概括。

名言积累:月是故乡明粉身碎骨浑不怕青山一道同风雨咬定青山不放松

运用举例

高分题目

《咬定创新不放松》

高分分论点

“月是故乡明”,强大的祖国永远是我们的坚实后盾。

“粉身碎骨浑不怕”,我们要成为祖国永远的助力。

“青山一道同风雨“,我们与我们的祖国同呼吸,共命运。

满分段落

“志之所趋,无远弗届;穷山距海,不能限也。”青年应当立鸿鹊之志,障厉奋发,站

于君之所念。

“无冥冥之志者,无昭昭之名明;无憎惜之事者,无赫赫之功。"在第二十六届中国青

年五四奖章入围者中,有站立于创新之巅的科研工作者,有站立于风雨中的外卖小哥,有站

立于三尺讲台的小学教师,有站立于基层的驻村书记,他们也是鲜衣怒马少年郎,但他们脚

踏实地,在自己的岗位上兢兢业业,脚踏实地,正如苏轼所言:“人生到处知何似,应似飞

鸿踏雪泥。泥上偶然留指脚,鸿飞那复计东西。”

方法二抓住练笔不变,每周写一篇《新闻周刊》观后感

写400字左右,有开头结尾,有分论点,五段内容

观后感举例

题目:热爱可抵岁月漫长别米佳

日迈月征,朝暮轮转。人生的道路难免曲折坎坷,但只要心中充满热爱与期待,一切荆

棘从生的道路终会迎接鲜花盛开。

探寻历史奥秘,他的脚印成就文物的重生。

“卅载光阴染指过,未经磨染是初心。”谢辰生老先生于几日前逝世,他一生都在从事

文物保护工作,自幼便对历史产生深厚兴趣,是中国第一代“文博人"。纵使年纪渐长,身

体不便,他仍然坚持亲自“下坑”工作,这是他人生道路从未消磨的热爰与追求。

奏响生命乐曲,他的歌声唱出无穷的力量。

“山高路远,看世界,也找自己。“当电吉他插上线,一切装备就绪,前奏响起的那

刻,一个人的乐队在屏幕前亮相,让人不得不赞叹。随后罗应星缓缓开嗓,一首《海阔天

空》唱得深情饱满。幼时因意外失去大部分视力的他在坎坷的人生道路上用音乐唱响未来。

跑出强者姿态,他在赛道爆发巨大潜力。

“忆往昔峰峰,岁月稠;思未来自信,更扬风。“九秒八三,东京奥运会上的他赢得掌

声与喝彩,而转向丰富多彩的大学课堂,他将经验与技巧传给年轻一代。如今他备战美国田

径世锦赛与杭州亚运会,用热爱书写辉煌。夜色难免黑凉,前行必有曙光

“夜色难免黑凉,前行必有曙光。”愿我们一同在热爱里让人生道路更加灿烂悠长。

方法三抓住阅读不变,每天坚持阅读时评文章,每周坚持阅读满分文章。

从时评中积累满分题目,筋骨句,名言,分析技巧;从满分作文中积累开头结尾,素材

运用技巧,辩证分析。

举例

六月热点时评阅读笔记

6月十大满分标题

积累,运用

《咬定创新不放松》

借鉴点:仿写名言,突出创新。

《我以青春长报国》

借鉴点:简洁,突出青春与国家关系。

《让青春绽放“绚丽之花”》

借鉴点:比喻修辞,青春价值。

《用奋斗擦亮青春底色》

借鉴点:用字结构,青春与奋斗。

不忘科学备考,奋斗砥砺前行;六月必定辉煌,学子必成栋梁。

2022和2021年语文新高考I卷题型对比分析

2022和2021年语文新高考I卷题型对比分析

(-)现代文阅读

模块2022年新高考I卷模块2021年新高考I卷

现代文"加快理解(3分)现代文阅读"诗画美理解(3分)

阅读I构建中推断(3分)I学"(约推断(3分)

国特色论证(3分)1800字)论证(3分)

哲学社分析(4分)论证(4分)

会科分析(4分)分析(6分)

学〃

“新寺

百年探

索与后

Wii寺

潮"

(约

1712

字)

现代文"江内容特色分析(3分)现代文阅内容理解(3

阅读口上"读口分)

(约内容理解(3分)“石门阵’特色分析(3

1902(约1850分)

字)内容分析(6分)字)手法分析(4

分)

改写效果分析(6分)形象分析(6

分)

现代文阅读I和II题型变化不大,就是分数分配上进行了微调。

(二)古代诗文阅读

模块2022年新高考I卷模块2021年新高考I卷

文言文阅战国策・魏策三断句(3分)文言文阅"通鉴纪事本断句(3分)

读常识(3分)读末•贞观君臣论常识(3分)

理解(3分)治"理解(3分)

翻译(8分)翻译(8分)

概括(3分)问答(3分)

古代诗歌魏了翁《醉落综合赏析(3分)古代诗歌杨巨源《寄江州综合赏析(3分)

阅读魄,人日南山约分析道理(6分)阅读白司马》唐诗分析观点(6分)

应提刑愁之懋

之》宋词

名篇名句荀子•劝学情景默写(6分)名篇名句逍遥游情景默写(6分)

默写诗经♦周南•关雎默写邹忌讽齐王纳谏

鸟啼悲思三秦

文言文阅读模块考察的知识点没变化,但出题和课文联系更紧密,(如将材料“为赵

蔽”中的“蔽”字与教材《邹忌讽齐王纳谏》“王之蔽”中的“蔽”字的含义加以比较)而

且出题范围跳出了以往的二十四史这个长期默认的范围,考试想压中同样的考题这几乎是不

可能的事,文言文备考只能踏踏实实做好“本手”课内的文言文知识的积累和知识的迁移,

想要靠押题来个“妙手”,最后只能下出“俗手”默写最后一题,从2021年到2022

年基本固定下来考限定词语分类的名句,默写要重视类的梳理,比如春夏秋冬、风花雪月日

星、虫鱼鸟兽、梅兰竹菊、喜怒哀乐等。

(三)语用文字运用

2022年新高考I卷2021年新高考I卷

奕恩杰为中国航天事业填写词语(3分)民俗与党史词语(3分)

做出杰出贡献。长句改短句(4分)病句(3分)

修辞(4分)修辞(5分)

减肥要讲究科学人称用法(3分)雪衣藻与雪变色连贯(3分)

补写(6分)补写(6分)

语用文字运用这块是2022年最大的变化:第一,常见的词语选择变成了填空,难度有了

显著的提升,对优秀学生也有了更好的区分度,以往选择题形式瞎选还有四分之一几率得满

分,现在学生没有足够的成语积累直接就干瞪眼,要拿满分必须要基础非常扎实才行。第

二,长句改短句,考察点没变,但题型从选择题变成主观题,难度其实是变大了,从这样的

改变来看,今后的高考语文会尽量体现出优秀学生和普通学生的区分度,“本手”没练好的

同学,要靠猜来拿分以后会越来越困难,差距也会拉大。第三,选择题考“人称”算是贴近

生活情境的题目,语文教学应该重视情境运用,要体现语文在生活中的应用。

(四)写作

2022年新高考I卷2021年新高考I卷

本手、妙手、俗手的辩哲理:对立统一辩证关体育之效与强弱之辩

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