福建省厦门市同安区第一中学2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中质量检测英语试题

同安一中2024-2025学年(上)七年级期中综合练习英语试题(满分150分；时长120分钟)考生注意：本试卷分为两大部分，第一部分(1~47小题)为选择题，请考生将答案用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上；第二部分为非选择题，请考生将答案用0、5毫米的黑色签字笔书写在答题卡上。第一部分(选择题)I.听音理解(共三节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分)第一节听句子听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。(每个句子读两遍)()1.A. B. C.()2.A. B. C.()3.A. B. C.()4.A. B. C.()5.A. B. C.第二节听对话听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。(每段对话读两遍)听第1段对话，回答第6小题。6.Whendotheymeet?A.Inthemorning. B.Intheafternoon. C.Intheevening.听第2段对话，回答第7小题。7.Whereisthegirl’seraser?A.Onthedesk. B.Underherchair. C.Inherschoolbag.听第3段对话，回答第8小题。8.Whohasanewbicycle?A.Paul. B.Alice. C.Thegirl’scousin.听第4段对话，回答第9小题。9.HowmanypencilsdoesSarahhave?A.Two. B.Three. C.Four.听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。10.Whosefarmarethespeakerson?A.Tom’s. B.Anna’s. C.Mike’s.11.WhatkindofplantdoesAnnasee?A.Carrotplants. B.Tomatoplants. C.Potatoplants.听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。12.What’sMary’slastname?A.Wood. B.Black. C.Green.13.WhereisJim’sclassroombuilding?A.NexttoMary’sclassroombuilding.B.BehindMary’sclassroombuilding.C.AcrossfromMary’sclassroombuilding.听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。14.Whoseping-pongbatisthis?A.Kate’s. B.David’s. C.David’sbrother’s.15.WhendoesDavidplaytheerhu?A.OnTuesday. B.OnMondayandFriday.C.OnSaturdayandSunday.注意：请将该题的答案书写在答题卡的第二部分第三节听短文根据所听到的短文内容及要求完成表格，每空一词。(短文读三遍)Helpusfindthings!Grace♢Shecan’tfindher48.______.♢Shegoestotheschoollibraryandthemusichallthismorning.♢Hertelephonenumberis576-3924.Grace’smother♢Sheisa(n)49.______teacher.♢Shedoes50.______onthesportsfield.♢Shecan’tfindher51.______bag.♢Thereare52.______booksandabluebottleinherbag.♢Callherat478-2915.II.语言知识应用(共两节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分)第一节单项选择从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。16.Wehave______excitingfootballgameinourschoolthisafternoon.Ican’twaittowatchit.A.a B.an C.the17.Whichoftheunderlinedvowel(元音)hasadifferentsound?A.hot B.dog C.go18.—Whydoyoulaughalot,Eric?—Becausethemovieisvery______.Let’swatchittogether.A.funny B.handsome C.different.19.Jack’sauntlikesplantingflowersand______gardenisgreat.A.her B.his C.its20.The80-year-oldmandoesexerciseeveryday.He______playsbasketballwithhisgrandsons.A.then B.else C.even21.—Couldyouhelpme______thebooks?Igotadifferentnumbereachtime.—Noproblem.A.start B.read C.count22.—Isthereabanknearhere?—Yes.It’s______thisshop.Justcross(穿过)theroad.A.acrossfrom B.nextto C.infrontof23.CouldyoupleasehelpLucy______thepictureonthewall?A.putup B.playwith C.lookat24.—______areyourping-pongbats,Nancy?—Iputtheminthelocker.Itisinourclassroom.A.Which B.Whose C.Where25.Lucyisabooklover.Shespendsonehour______inthelibraryeveryday.A.read B.reading C.toread26.Thecapistoo______forme.Pleaseshowmeasmallerone.A.smart B.special C.large27.Hecanplaytheguitar,______hecan’tplayitverywell.A.and B.but C.or28.—What______wouldyouliketotry?—IwanttoplayChinesechess.A.activity B.building C.band29.—Howaboutwatchingthenewsofthelaunch(发射)ofShenzhou-19together?—Wow!______A.Havefun B.Soundsgreat C.You’rewelcome第二节完形填空从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。InJayda’sfamily,thereisaspecialtradition(传统)—Grandmotherneedstomakeclothesasher30twelfthbirthdaygift.Andtheclothesmustbeinthechild’sfavoritecolor.Timeflies,andJayda’stwelfthbirthdaycomes.Onthatday,Jaydagets31earlyandgoestoseehergrandmother.Whenshewalksintothehousehergrandmothersays,“Mychild!Iwanttomakeyouaskirt.Whatcolordoyoulikebest?”Jaydathinksforaminuteandsays,“Grandma,Iloveallthecolorsoftherainbow!Redisthecoloroflove.Orange32mefeelwarm.Yellowisthecolorjustrightforkids.Greenisthecoloroflife.Anditisrelaxingtoweargreen.33isthecolorofseaandsky.It’sbigandquiet.Purpleisthecolorofwisdom(智慧).WhenIwearpurple,Ifeelcool.Theyareallgreat.But34canIgetthemall?”Hearingthis,thegrandmasays,“Iknowwhattodonow”.Hourslater,shecomesback.Jaydaisso35witharainbow-coloredskirtinherhand.“Wow!Ihavetherainbownow!”30.A.grandfather’s B.daughter’s C.grandchild’s31.A.on B.up C.down32.A.has B.makes C.gets33.A.Blue B.BlackCGreen34.A.where B.why C.how35.A.happy B.funny C.tidyIII.阅读理解(共两节，16小题，每小题2分，满分32分)第一节阅读以下A、B、C三篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳答案。AAllthestudentsandteachersneedtotakethephysicalexamination(体检)onNovember23atourschool.Time:Students:12:30p.m.-2:45p.m. Teachers:2:45p.m.-3:30p.m.Howtogetthere:●Startfromtheteachingbuilding.●Gotothelab(实验室).●Tumright.●Goandpass(走过)thelibrary.●Youwillseetheplaceforthephysicalexaminationonyourleft.Note:SchoolgateDon’tbelate.Afterthephysicalexamination,pleasegobacktoyourclassroomassoonaspossible(尽快).Youcanseeyourhealthreportinthe“Alipay”appnextFriday.36.WhencantheteacherstakethephysicalexaminationonNovember23?A.At2:30p.m. B.At3:00p.m. C.At5:00p.m.37.Whereisthelibrary?A.Behindthelab.B.Nexttotheteachingbuilding.C.Infrontofthegym.38.Whichistheplaceforthephysicalexamination?A.① B.② C.③39.Wherecanthestudentsseethehealthreports?A.Inthe“Alipay”app. B.Fromthedoctors. C.Fromtheirteachers.BApril23rdisWorldBookDay.It’sadaywhenkidsshowtheirloveofbooksandreading.Itwantstohelpkidsreadmorebooks.Onthatday,therearemanyfunthingsforkids.Theycandressup(装扮)astheirfavoritebookcharacters(角色),suchasPeppaPig,Superman,Mulanandsoon.Theycanmeetmanywritersandbooksellers(书商).Theycangetsomenicebooks,too.Itisgoodforkidstoenjoywhattheyread.Sohowcankidsreadtherightbooks?Herearesomeadvice(建议)fromwriterson2024WorldBookDay.Thisadvicecanhelpthemtoreadtherightbooks.●Visitthelibraryandaskthelibrariansforsomehelpfuladvice.●Readbooksthatinterestyou.Thesecouldbestorybooks,artbooksandsoon.●Askyourfriendsaboutgoodbookstheyhaveread.40.WhodoesWorldBookDaywanttohelp?A.Kids. B.Writers. C.Booksellers.41.WhatcankidsgetonWorldBookDay?A.Clothes. B.Toys: C.Books.42.Toreadtherightbooks,kidscan______.A.askthelibrariansformorebooksB.getbooksthataredifficultforthemC.askwhatgoodbookstheirfriendsread43.Wecanreadthepassagefroma(n)______.A.e-mail B.newspaper(报纸) C.sciencebookCWealwayshearaboutshared(共享的)bikesandsharedcars,butdoyouknowsharedfarms?Onasharedfarm,peoplecanrent(租)afieldandplantvegetables.Thesedays,therearesharedfarmsinmanycitiesinChina,likeBeijing,Shanghai,XiamenandSuzhou.ChenYouguiwasthefirstonetotrythesharedfarm.Atfirst,manypeopleincitieswantedtoplantvegetables,buttherewasn’tenoughspaceforthem.Sotheideaofthe“sharedfarm”cametoChen.Now,herunsasharedfarminShanghai.OnChen’ssharedfarm,thereareabout200members.Somemembersevenkeepchickensandducksonthefarm,Manymembersareparents.“Theyrentfieldstoteachtheirchildrenaboutscience,natureandfarming,”Chensays.Aboutthesharedfarm,differentpeoplehavedifferentideas.Howdopeoplelikethesharedfarm?Janesays,“workingonthefarmmakesmetired,butIhavelotsoffunonthefarm.Icanhavefunplantingmyfavouritevegetablesandkeepingsomeanimals.”Lindasays,“NowgreenvegetablesarepopularinChina.Becauseofthesharedfarm,Icaneatmoregreenvegetables.”44.Howdoesthewriterstartthepassage?A.Byaskingaquestion. B.Bytellingastory. C.Bygivingnumbers45.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“runs”inparagraph2mean?A.跑步 B.经营 C.丢失46.WhatcanweknowaboutChen’ssharedfarm?A.Thereare300membersinit.B.ChenYouguiteacheschildrenaboutfarming.C.Manyparentsrentafieldtoteachchildren.47.Thepassagemainly(主要)talksabout______A.populargreenvegetablesonthefarmB.differentideasaboutthesharedfarmC.Chen’ssharedfarminShanghai第二部分(非选择题)第二节阅读D篇短文，根据短文内容及要求完成各题。DHello!I’mamiddleschoolstudentandmyfullnameisPeterGreen.IcomefromtheUS.NowIlivewithmyparentsinChengdu,China.Ilovethecountryverymuch,becausetherearepandashere.Pandaslookverycute,soIlikethemalot.Ilikeamovie(电影)aboutapandacalledPo.Heisgoodatkungfu(功夫).Manypeoplelikehim.Ithinkyouknowhimtoo.Themoviemakesmeknowaboutkungfu.Now,IamlearningitfromUncleWang.WhoisUncleWang?Helivesnextdoortousandheisaverygoodteacherforme.Ihavesomenewfriendshere.TheyhelpmelearnChinese.TheyalsotakemetoeatSichuanfood.Ireallylikeeatinghotpot.Afterschool,weoftenplaybasketball.Thisisahobbyweshare.IamreallyhappyinChina.53.WhereisPeterfrom?_______________________________________________________________54.请将画横线的句子翻译成中文。_______________________________________________________________55.Theunderlinedword“it”inParagraph2refersto(指代)______.56.WhatdoesPeteroftendoafterschool?_______________________________________________________________IV.书面表达(共五节，满分58分)第一节连词成句重新排序所给词汇，组成正确的句式表达。(每小题2分，满分10分)57.need,keep,to,your,tidy,you,room_______________________________________________________________.58.many,does,have,uncle,how,chickens,your_______________________________________________________________?59.Tom,in,and,are,I,school,the,band,both_______________________________________________________________.60.play,I,violin,the,well,really_______________________________________________________________.61.hall,the,across,music,the,is,sports,from,field_______________________________________________________________?第二节补全对话根据情境，在空白处填入一个适当语句，使对话恢复完整。(每小题2分，满分10分)A:Hi,Frank.B:Hello,Jenny.62.____________?A:Iamfine,thankyou.B:Isheyournewfriend?A:63.____________.Heismynewfriend,Bob.B:Nicetomeetyou,Bob.C:64.____________.B:65.____________?C:I’minClassTwo.66.____________?B:MyclassteacherisMsGao.C:I’mhappytomakefriendswithyou.B:Metoo.第三节补全句子根据语境或具体提示，补全句子。(每小题1.5分，满分15分)67.Therearemany______(build)inmyschool.68.MybrotherandIaresimilar______eachother.69.Thegymismyfavouriteplace______Ilikeplayingsportsalot.70.Thisismy______,myaunt’sson.71.Ikeeptwo______inmyyard.72.MyEnglishclass______(start)ateightonMonday.73.There______(be)somewaterandtwoapplesonthetable.74.—Whatare______(that)inyourbags?—Theyaremynewpencils.75.Thefoodinourschoolis______/dɪ'lɪʃəs/.76.Mysisteroftenplays______inherfreetime.第四节看图写句根据所给图片和提示词，写出正确的句式表达。(每小题2分，满分8分)77.this,my 78.brother,everyweekend79.be,desk 80.Tom,favourite第五节段落编写使用所给词语，编写一个意义相对完整的语段。(满分15分)提示词：kind,play,friend,really,have要求：1.使用全部提示词，并在语段中用下划波浪线“______”标出提示词；2.语段具有一个相对合理的主题意义；3.词数50-80左右。________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

同安一中2024-2025学年(上)七年级期中综合练习英语试题1-5CBAAB 6-10CBBCC 11-15BCABA 16-20BCAAC21-25CAACB 26-29CBAB 30-35CBBACA 36-39BABA40-43ACCB 44-47ABCC*下列主观题可能存在多种答案，应尽量减少不影响交际功能的非关键性错误的扣分。48.cap 49.science 50.exercises 51.white 52.three/353.HeisfromtheUS./HecomesfromtheUS.54.现在我和我的父母住在中国成都。55.kungfu56.Heoftenplaysbasketball.57.Youneedtokeepyourroomtidy.58.Howmanychickensdoesyourunclehave?