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2022年江西省南昌市九年级中考第二次调研检测
英语
说明:1.全卷满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
2.请将谷案写在答题卷上,不要在试题卷上作答,否则不给分。
一、听力测试(20分)
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出
最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小
题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
1.WhatwillJackdo?
A.Callhisfriends.B.Writetohisparents.C.Emailhisteacher.
2.Wheredidthemangothismorning?
A.Thepark.B.Thelibrary.C.Thezoo.
3.Howlongdoesittakethemantogettoschool?
A.5minutes.B.15minutes.C.20minutes.
4.Whichpollutionisthebiggestproblemfortheman?
A.Waterpollution.B.Airpollution.C.Noisepollution.
5.Whatdocsthemanmean?
A.Tomwon'tplaytenniswiththem.
B.Tomwantstohavehisowncomputer.
C.Tomthinksplayingtennisisverydifficult.
B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选
出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5
秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。
6.Whycan'tthegirlgoouttonight?
A.Becausesheistootired.
B.Becauseshehastofinishhomework.
C.Becauseherparentswon'tallowhertogoout.
7.WhatdoesMikeaskhertodotonight?
A.Watchamovie.B.Stayathome.C.Enjoyaconcert.
请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。
8.HowmanydaysdoesLindaworkaweek?
A.Three.B.Four.C.Five.
9.WhatcanweknowaboutLinda?
A.Herbikewaslost.
B.ShewillbeatworkonSunday.
C.Sheisonabusinessinanothercity.
请听第3段对话,回答第10至第12小题。
10.Whoneedsthecamera?
A.Mike.B.Peter.C.Thewoman'sbrother.
11.Whencanthespeakersgetthecameraback?
A.OnSaturday.B.OnSunday.C.OnMonday.
12.Whichofthefollowingistrue?
A.Peterhasalreadygotanewcamera.
B.Mike'scameraisn*tworkingproperly.
C.Thewoman'scameraisagiftfromherbrother.
请听第4段对话,回答第13至第15小题。
13.Whereisthegirlgoing?
A.Herschool.B.Herparents*home.C.Hereveningclass.
14.Whattimeisitnow?
A.7:25.B.7:30.C.7:45.
15.Whatcanwelearnfromtheconversation?
A.TheboyisinterestedinJapanese.
B.Thegirlisgoingtovisitheruncle.
C.Thegirlwillsendemailstotheboy.
C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案
填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
(每小题1分)
16.Thestudentsaregoingtostayintheschoolfor.
17.Inthefirstclass,theteacherswilloffersomeadviceonhowto.
18.Theteacherswillalsoexplainhowheorshemarksyourhomeworkand.
19.Theteacherthinkbeinginawesterncountrywillnothelpthestudents.
20.ThestudentscangotoonthefirstfloortoaskMr.Kingforhelp.
二、单项填空(8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳
选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
21.WeallwanttovisitMrs.Linthisafternoon.Couldyoutellmeher?
A.bankB.sizeC.addressD.country
22.—Jack,areyouallright?Youlookvery.
—Yeah,Iworkedallnightfortoday'sbookreport.
A.fullB.tiredC.thirstyD.hungry
23.—Idreamtobeagreatsingerwhen1growup.
一That'sgreat.Butitconfidenceandalotofpractice.
A.worksB.fillsC.requiresD.suggests
24.--Neil,you'rereadingagain.
—Yes,Ithinkreadingbooksabridgebetweenourlivesandtheunknownworld.
A.buildsB.builtC.wasbuildingD.hadbuilt
25.Theirbusinesswillnotimprovetheyofferbetterservicetothecustomers.
A.unlessB.ifC.becauseD.since
26.Ourteamanotherpoint!Iamsurewe*llwinthegame.
A.willgetB.hasgotC.isgettingD.wasgetting
27.-Canyoubelieveamountaingroweveryyear?
—Ofcourse.Accordingtoarecentsurvey,Qomolangmahasrisen.
A.lowB.lowerC.highD.higher
28.Thebossdidn*twantNancyloleave,sosheapayincrease.
A.offersB.offeredC.wasofferedD.hasoffered
三、完形填空(26分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出
可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
Veryoften,weexpectourparentstosolveourproblems,however,theycan'tsolveeveryprob
lemforus.Weshouldhaveenoughlifeskillsto__29___theproblemswaitingforusinthefuture.
Thisiswhat___30___countrytriestodonow:Helpingmorestudentshaveworkingsprint.To
helpusunderstandthe31_ofhardworkingspiriteducation(劳动教育),thegovernmentre
leasedaguideline(发布指导方针)recently.
Theguidelinerequiresstudentstolearn___32___lifeskillsandformgoodworkinghabits
throughsucheducation,andthey___33___work.
Thegovernmenthasalwaystriedtohelpstudents___34___theimportanceofworkinghard.But
many___35___donotvaluetheimportanceofworkinghardandarenotinterested___36doing
so.Only22percentofprimaiyandmiddleschoolstudentshelptheirparentswitheverydayhouse
work.
Schoolandfamiliesplayanimportant___37___inteachingstudentsaboutthevalueofworking
hard,theguidelinesays.Everyweek,primaryandmiddleschoolsshould_38___studentswithhard
workingspiritclasses.Theycanalsoorganizeactivitiestogivestudentsreal-worldwork.
___39___Forexample,theycanteachchildrenhowto___40___treesonTree-PlantingDay.
Aschildren's___41___teachers,parentsshouldalsoencouragechildrentodohousework.Stu
dentsshouldlearnmorelifeskills,whichincludecooking,washingtheirclothesandtidyinguptheir
rooms.
Well___42___growupsomeday,leavingourparentsandfacingthechallengesinlife.
___43___weleamenoughlifeskills,wecandependonourselves.
29.A.dealwithB.helpwithC.agreewithD.sharewith
30.A.itsB.ourC.yourD.their
31.A.secretB.abilityC.importanceD.competition
32.A.expensiveB.necessaryC.comfortableD.possible
33.A.shouldB.mayC.needn'tD.couldn't
34.A.reachB.introduceC.describeD.realize
35.A.peopleB.teenagersC.boysD.girls
36.A.byB.withC.inD.al
37.A.roleB.characterC.useD.decision
38.A.offerB.provideC.protectD.prevent
39.A.hobbiesB.storiesC.experienceD.fame
40.A.cutB.moveC.plantD.produce
41.A.firstB.lastC.longestD.best
42.A.carefullyB.luckilyC.successfullyD.finally
43.A.SoB.IfC.ButD.Before
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写
到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)
whilefoodinvitedtheyhavetraditiononlycookiecommoneithereat
IntheUnitedStates,mostchildren'sbirthdaypartiesareheldatthehomeofthebirthdayboyor
girl.Itusedtobethatchildren'spartieswere_44—forchildren.Parentswoulddroptheirkidsof
andcomebackwhenthepartywasovertotake_45_home.
Now,itismore46—fortheparents1gueststostayforthepartyaswell.Thisgivestheadults
timeandspacetocommunicate_47—thekidsplaygames.
Kidsandadultsdon*talwayshavethesametastosin_48—.Sowhenadultsare_49—togo
forachild'sbirthdayparty,thereisusuallydifferentfoodfortheadults,likecheese,_50—Mean
while,thekids_51—hotdogandpotatochips.Parentsmaydrinksomealcohol(¥酉).
Partygamesarenotjustfbrthekids,—52—.Whilethechildrenplay_53—gameslikemusical
chairs,adultsmaydanceorplaycardgames.Parentsandtheirchildrencanalwayshavefun,andthey
expect_54—anotherbirthdaypartyverysoon.
四、阅读理解(46分)
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳
选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题2分)
A
BulletinBoard(公告栏)
Davidthemusical(音乐剧)FunMarket
AttheGreatTheatre,GreenStreetTue.31July-Sheptontownsquare
-Sun.12AugustThurs.-Sun.:10a.m.-11p.m.
TicketsonlyavailableattheGreatTheatreticketTraditionalcrafts(手工艺品),food,drinks,
office.sportsandgames
Sci-fiFestivalHelpwanted
Sat.28JulyFull&Part-timejobsnowoffered
12p.m.-12a.m.Part-timeCookneededforourstoreinBrandon.
AtthePhoenixArtsCentreFull-TimeBreakfastCookneededforourstore
inEastMiddlebury.
Admission(入场费):Apply(申请)inpersonatthestoreoronline
$15children&seniors(老年人)alwww.
$20adults
55.Wherecanwegettraditionalcrafts?
A.AttheSci-fiFestival.
B.AttheGreatTheatre.
C.AtSheptontownsquare.
D.AtthestoreinBrandon.
56.Mr.SmithistakingachildandaseniortotheSci-fiFestival,howmuchshouldhepay?
A.$45.B.$50.C.$55.D.$60
57.Whichofthefollowingistrue?
A.Davidthemusicalwillbeonfor12days.
B.ThestoreinBrandononlyoffersPart-timejob.
C.WecanbuyticketsforDavidthemusicalonline.
D.Wecanonlyapplyforthejobinpersonatthestore.
B
Chinesesprinter(短跑运动员)SuBingtianwonthemen's100msemifinals(半决赛)
duringtheTokyo2020OlympicGamesonAugust1,2021.Hefinallyachievedhisgoalinhisthird
OlympicGames.Hehasalreadyrunbelow10secondsin100mcompetitionstwicethisyear.He
finishedthepreliminaryrace(预赛)at10.05secondsbeforeadmittingitwasnotthebesthecould
do.
SuBingtiansetanewAsianrecordinthemen's100-meterracewithatimeof9.83secondsat
theTokyoOlympicssemifinalstobecomethefirstChinesesprintertoqualify(取得资格)forthe
finaloftheevent.HealsobecamethefirstAsianathletetoreachtheOlympicfinaloftheeventsince
thedigitaltimer(数字计时器)wasintroduced.
Thoughhedidnotwinamedal,SuwasabreakoutstarforTeamChinainTokyoFirst,heseta
newAsianrecordof9.83secondsinthemen's100msemifinal,becomingthefirstChinesesprinter
toreachthefinaloftheeventatanOlympics.ThenSufinishedsixthinthefinal,whichwasalso
history-makingperformance.
Afterthat,Sujoinedinthemen's4xlOOmrelayeventandagainmadethefinalandfinished
fourthinthefinal.SuBingtianwillbetheflag-bearer(旗手)oftheChinesedelegationatthe
closingceremonyoftheTokyoOlympicsonSunday."Thiswillbemysecondtimetoattendthe
closingceremony,thefirsttimewasinthelastOlympicGames,"SutoldChinaMediaGroup.
58.HowmuchdidSuimprovefromthepreliminaryracetothemen's100-melerrace?
A.0.22seconds.B.10.05seconds.C.0.18seconds.D.9.83seconds.
59.Whatcanweinferfromparagraph2?
A.Asianathletesdidquitewellinmen's100mrace.
B.Suwonthefinalofmen's100mraceat9.83seconds.
C.SuwasthefirstAsiantofinishthemen's100mraceal9.83seconds.
D.Chinesesprintershaveenteredthefinalofthemen's100mracebefore.
60.PutSu*sachievementsinthecorrecttimeorder.
a.Winningthemen's100msemifinals.
b.Finishingsixthinthemen's100mfinal.
c.Finishingthepreliminaryraceat10.05seconds.
d.Finishingfourthinthemen's4xlOOmrelayevent.
A.d-a-c-bB.c-a-b-dC.c-d-a-bD.a-c-b-d
C
Mostkidsliketoplayvideogames.Butdidyouknowthatsomepeopleconsidergamingasport?
Whenpeopleplayinvideogamecompetitions,it'scalledeSports.
StanfordUniversityheldthefirsteSporteventin1972.Studentscompetedwhileplayingapop
ularvideogame.In1980,theSpaceInvadersChampionshipwasthefirstofficialvideogamecom
petition.Tenthousandpeoplewatchedtheevent.
Anyonecanplayvideogames.Youdon*thavetobestrongortalltobegoodatthem.Gaming
takesskillandpractice,however.Inthisway,thetrainingcanbemuchthesameasintraditional
sports.Playingvideogamescanbegoodforyou,too.Youneedtodothingsoverandoveragainin
agame,suchashittingaball.Studiessaythistrainsthebraintoworkbetterinreallife.
Therearcsummercampswherekidsgotodeveloptheirgamingskills.Gamerscanbepartof
aneSportsteamincollege,muchlikebeingonasoccerteam.Somekidsenjoyplayingsomuchthat
theyplantodoitasajob.Professionalgamersplayagainsteachothertowinbigprizemoney.
Otherssaygamingcan'tbeasportbecauseitisn'tathletic.Somefeelthatkidsspendtoomuch
timeinsidewithmade-upcharacters.Theysaythatkidsshouldgooutsideandgetsomeexercise
instead.Someparentsworryaboutbadthingstheirkidscouldlearnfromplayingvideogames.For
example,ifchildrenplaygameswithlotsoffighting,thatmightmakethembecomefuriousvery
easily.
Likemostsports,therearesomegoodandbadthingsaboutgaming.
61WhatdoesParagraph2mainlyabout?
A.ThefirsteSportevent.
B.ThepopularityofeSportevents.
C.ImportanteSporteventsinhistory
D.Thefirstofficialvideogamecompetition
62.WhatdoeSportsandtraditionalsportshaveincommon?
A.Theyarebothexpensive.
B.Theybothtakeskillandpractice.
C.Theyarebothpopularamongkidsandparents.
D.Theyarebothplayedamongmade-upcharacters.
63.Whatdoestheunderlinedword"furious"inParagraph6mean?
A.Angry.B.Hungry.C.Excited.D.Surprised
64.Whatwouldbethebesttitleforthepassage?
A.APopularVideoGame.B.WhyYouShouldPlayEsports.
C.EsportsandTraditionalSports.D.Esports:TheFutureofSports?
D
Howdoesitfeelwhensomeonelistenstoyouwithoutstoppingorgivingtheiropinion?Thisis
calledactivelisteningandit'sagreatwaytounderstandotherpeople'sfeelingsandbuildtrustbe
tweenfriends.
Themeaningofactivelistening
Activelisteningmeanstryingtounderstandhowsomeonefeelsbylisteningcarefullytowhat
they'resayingandbypayingattentiontotheirbodylanguage(howtheirfaceandbodyexpresstheir
feelings).TheWeekJuniorreaderAnnie,aged11,explainswhatitmeanstoher."Whenmy
friendstellmesomethingimportant,Ilistentowhatthey'retryingtosay.Icantellbytheirvoices
andthelooksontheirfacesifthey'reupsetorhappy.ThismakesmefeellikeIunderstandthem
better.w
Thereasonsofbeingactivelisteners
Listeningcloselytosomeonewithoutstoppingorgivingyourownopinionshowsthatyou're
interestedinwhattheyYesaying,evenifyoudon*tagree.Thishelpstoavoidmistakesandarguments
andcanmakefriendshipstrong.Samaritansisacharitythatsupportspeoplebylisteningtotheir
worries.Itsays,“Reallylisteningtopeoplemakesthemfeelvaluedandunderstood,andbeingable
tolistenwelltoothershelpsyoubesomeonewhoothersfeeltheycanturntoandtrust.”
Thewaystobeactivelisteners
Listencarefullytowhatyourfriendissaying,andavoidjumpinginwithyourownthoughtsand
feelings.Ifyoureallywanttotalk,Samaritanssuggestsmakingalisteningsignlikenoddingyour
headinstead.Askquestionsorsaythingsthatneedmorethanayesornoanswer,like“Tellme
more”.Trylookingfbrmoreinformationabouthowthey'refeelingintheirfacesandbodiestoo.
“Activelisteningisaskillandittakespractice,nsaysSamaritans,“butdon*tgiveup,andremem
beryoucanonlydoyourbest.n
65.Howdoesthewriterexplainactivelistening?
A.Bymakingalist.B.Byaskingquestions.
C.Bysharingnumbers.D.Bygivinganexample
66.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“it"inparagraph2referto?
A.Bodylanguage.B.Activelistening.
C.Payingattention.D.TheWeekJunior.
67.Howcanyoubeanactivelisteneraccordingtothepassage?
A.Expressyourideasfreely.B.Neveraskquestionsorsayanything.
C.Nodyourheadwhenyouwanttoshare:youropinions.
D.Feelothers,feelingsonlybylisteningtowhattheysay
68.Whichofthefollowingbestshowsthestructureofthepassage?
E
Orderingfoodhasneverbecomeeasier.Allyouneedtodoisjustopenanapp,placeyourorder,
andwaitforyourfoodtobedelivered(递送)toyourhome-thisishowpeopleeatinChinathese
days.AccordingtothelatestreportfromtheChinaInternetInformationCenter,421millionChinese
peopleuseonlinefooddeliveryservices.That'shalfofthetotalnumberofInternetusersinChina.
Unsurprisingly,it'smainlyyoungpeople.ArecentreportfromMeituan,afooddelivery
service,showedthat86.3percentoftheservice'susersarebetween20and34yearsold.Thesepeople
arethemainforcemakingthedevelopmentofthefooddeliveryindustry(行业)
Smallfamiliesdependgreatlyonfonddeliveryservices.AccordingtotheNationalBureauof
Statistics,Chinesefamilieshavechangedinsizeoverthepasttenyears.In2004,only7.7percentof
peoplelivedalone.Butthisnumberaddedupto15.6percentin2019.Forsmallfamilies,cooking
takesmoretime,soorderingfoodonlinehasbecomemorepopular.
TheimprovementofChina'sfooddeliveryserviceshasalsoattracted(吸弓I)morecustomers.
AccordingtoMeituan'sreport,thetimeittakestomakeafooddeliverydroppedfrom38minutesin
2016to29minutesin2019.Meituanisalsoofferingmoreservices,deliveringproductssuchasfruit,
vegetables,medicineandflowers.Asitsservicesimprove,it'slikelythatthefooddeliveryindustry
willkeepgrowing.
69.Accordingtothepassage,howmanyInternetusersarethereinChina?
A.210.5million.B.222millionC.421million.D.842million.
70.Choosethebestsentencetofillintheblank"__"inParagraph2.
A.Whoisorderingfoodonlinethemost?
B.Whoisdeliveringthefoodtoyourhome?
C.What'sthemostpopularfooddeliveryapp?
D.Howoldaretheusersoffooddeliveryservices?
71.WhatcanwelearnfromParagraph3and4?
A.FewerpeoplelivedaloneinChinain2019.
B.Thefooddeliveryindustryhasmanyproblems.
C.Fooddeliverytakeslongerbecauseofmorecustomers.
D.Smallfamiliesmakefooddeliveryservicemorepopular.
72.Whatisthepassagemainlyabout?
A.Thechangedworld.B.Afoodorderingapp.
C.Thefooddeliveryindustry.D.Youngpeople'seatinghabits.
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择
五个还原到文中使短文意思通顺结构完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。(每小
题2分)
Shoppingmayhebadfbryourwalletbutitisgoodforyourhealth,saysomeexperts.Recent
studieshaveshownthatHretailtherapy”(购物治疗法)isagoodwayofhelpingpeopletodeal
withsadness.—73—However,makingdecisionsaboutwhattobuyhelpsgetbackthefeelingsof
controloverenvironmentandself.
—74_Gettingsomethingatalowprice,fbrexample,canalsobuildupone'sfeelingsofself
worth.
Shoppingforotherpeoplecanalsohelppeopleformhealthyrelationships.—75—Thisconnec
tioncanmakethemhappierbecausetheyfeelclosertotheirfamily.
—76—ArecentarticleinTheDailyTelegraphnewspaperinBritainsaidthatwalkingandcar
ryingshoppingbagscanbumoff385caloriesinaweek.AndoneshoppingcenterinEnglanddidan
interestingstudy._77_Mencanwalkforonly1.5milesduringtheiraverageweeklyshopping,
whichusuallylastsabout50minutesperweek.AcharityknownasTheHeartFoundationalsoadvises
)eopletoshopbecausei[preventsth6mfromsitting,whichcanbeverybadfortheheart._________
A.Shoppingisthemostpopularactivityinpeople'slife.
B.Shoppingcanalsobeconsideredawaytohelppeopleliftspirits.
C.InBritain,peoplespendmoremoneyonshoppingthanthebodybuilding.
D.Unhappypeopleoftenbelievethattheycannotcontrolthethingsaroundthem.
E.Forexample,grandparentscangetclosetograndchildrenbygettingthemnewtoys.
F.Shoppingcanhelpimproveaperson'smoodanditcanalsobegoodforyourphysical
health.
G.Itsaysthatwomenwalkaboutthreemilesforeverytwoandahalfhoursofweeklyshop
ping.
五、补全对话(5分)
请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处,使对话
通顺、合理,意思完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。(每小题1分)
(HenryisdroppingbyClairenow.H=Henry,C=Claire;
C:Hello,Henry.Comein.
H:Oh,sorry.You'rehavinglunch.
C:No,thisisbreakfast.—78—
H:Someonetoldmeyou'regoingawayafterChristmas.
C:_79_
H:Whatalifeyoulead,Claire.Whattimedoyouleavefortheairport?
C:Oh,ataboutteninthemorning.—80—
H:Icandriveyoutotheairport.
C:_81_
H:FmfreeonWednesdaymornings.Fdliketoseeyouoff.
C:Thanksalot.—82—
H:Noproblem.Seeyouthen.
A.That'ssoniceofyou,butIcantakeataxi.
B.Yes,I'mgoingtoNewYorkonWednesday.
C.Mostofpeoplemustbesleepingatthattime.
D.Thenlet'smeetat9:50onWednesdaymorning.
E.Wecantalkonthephoneaslongasyou'refree.
F.Istayeduplateworkingonthereportlastnight.
G.Idon'tliketoflyatnightthoughit'smuchcheaper.
2022年江西省南昌市九年级中考第二次调研检测
英语听力材料、参考答案及评分意见
一、听力测试(20分)
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出
最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小
题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
1.W:Jack,willyousendanemailtoyourparents?
M:No,Iwillwritealettertothem.
2.W:Wherehaveyoubeen?We'relookingforyoueverywhere.
M:Didn*tItellyouIhadtohelpcleanthecityparkthismorning?
3.W:Itusuallytakesmetwentyminutestogettoschoolbybus.Howaboutyou,Jack?
M:Iwalktoschool.Ittakesfiveminutesless.
4.W:Ithinkairpollutionandwaterpollutionaretwoseriousenvironmentalproblems.
M:Don'tyouthinknoisepollutionisthebiggestproblem?Thereissomuchnoise
aroundthesedays.
5.W:Let'saskTomtoplaytenniswithus.
M:Don'tyouknowit'sthehardestthingtoaskhimtoleaveacomputer?
B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选
出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5
秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。
W:Ican'tcomeouttonight,Mike.Ihavetofinishmyhomework.Pmbehindwitheverything.
M:Youshouldn*tworrysomuch,Linda.Youneedtorelaxsometimes.
W:IknowIshouldn'tfeelworried,butIcan'thelpit.
M:Anyway,you'redoingOK,aren*tyou?Let'sgoandenjoytheconcerttonight,Ithinkit
willmakeyoufeelrelaxed.
请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。
W:Excuseme,areyoulookingforsomeone?
M:Yes,doyouknowwhereLindais?
W:Oh,sheisn'theretoday.Sheonlyworksfourdaysaweek.
M:SowillshebehereonMonday?
W:Ofcourse,shewill.CanItakeamessageforher?
M:Thanks.Please
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