黄金卷03（试卷含解析）-【赢在高考·黄金8卷】备战2024年高考英语模拟卷（新高考Ⅰ卷专用）

（考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分）注意事项：1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1．Whichisincludedintherent?A．Electricity.B．TheInternet.C．Parking.2．Whatdoesthewomando?A．Aticketseller.B．Apoliceofficer.C．Adriver.3．Wheredoestheconversationtakeplace?A．Inarepairshop.B．Inacamerastore.C．Inaphotographystudio.4．Howdoesthemansound?A．Excited.B．Doubtful.C．Anxious.5．Whywon’tthewomangivethemandirections?A．Sheislateforclass.B．Sheisn’tfamiliarwiththearea.C．Shehasneverheardofthecommunitycollege.第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。6．Howlongwillthespeakerswaitfor?A．60minutes.B．45minutes.C．55minutes.7．Whatwillthespeakersdonext?A．Findanotherrestaurant.B．Waitinline.C．Dosomeshopping.8．Whatdoesthemanreallywanttoeat?A．Fastfood.B．Beansandrice.C．Hotpot.9．Whenwillthespeakersgoouttoeat?A．Latertonight.B．Nextmonth.C．Attheendofthemonth.听第8段材料，完成下面小题。10．Whatisthemandoing?A．Attendingalecture.B．Organizingaworkshop.C．Holdinganinterview.11．Whydoesthewomanvolunteerinacharityevent?A．Tofollowacommontrend.B．Tohelpraisemoney.C．Toexperiencedifferentroles.12．Whatdoesthewomanthinkofthefilm-makingworkshop?A．Wonderful.B．DemandingC．Boring.听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。13．Whatisthemandoing?A．Cooking.B．Exercising.C．Preparingforameeting.14．Howdoesthewomansoundafterlearningtheman’sweightloss?A．Serious.B．Surprised.C．Happy.15．Howdoesthemangettoworknow?A．Bytrain.B．Bybus.C．Bybike.16．Whatwillthemandotohelpthewoman?A．Makesaladsforher.B．Gojoggingwithher.C．Lendabooktoher.听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。17．Whoisthespeakerprobablytalkingto?A．Newstaff.B．Tourguides.C．Tourists.18．Howoftenisthesafetymeetingheld?A．Everymonth.B．Everytwoweeks.C．Everyweek.19．Whatarethelistenersallowedtowearinthelab?A．Jackets.B．Loosebelts.C．Sportsshoes.20．Whydoesthespeakergivethetalk?A．Tocomeupwithnewideas.B．Tointroducerulesinthelab.C．Toinvitesomesuggestions.第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。AWritinganythingimaginativeandquestioningusuallycomesdowntooneordinaryquestion:whatif?Whatiftherewereghostswhocouldmovethroughthewalls?Whatifamanweretoturnintosalt?Whatiftherewasabookofrealpredictions?Thesequestionsformclearstartingpoints,whilecharacter,setting,andthebeginningpointarekeyparts.InthismasterclasswithNatashaPulley,theSundayTimesbestsellingauthorofTheWatchmakerofFiligreeStreetandcreativewritinglecturer,youwillbeguidedthroughthestrategiesthathelpcraftmagicalrealism,fromstoryplanningtothefinalcompletion.Combiningpracticalwritingexerciseswiththeoryanddiscussion,thismasterclasswillgiveyouthetoolsandinspirationtobuildyourideasintoanovel.CoursecontentFindingyourideasquicklyandeasilyExtendingtheoutlineintomorecomplexworld-buildingHowtousehistoricallanguagetoenrichyourworkHowtothinkaboutnovelstructureCourseDetailsDate:Thursday12October2023Time:6:30pm-9:00pmYouwillbesentalinktotheonlineclass24hourspriortothestarttime.Pleaseemailmasterclasses@theguardian.comifyoudonotreceivetheaccesslink24hoursbeforethescheduledstarttime.Ifyourequireanyadjustmentstoenableyourparticipationinthiscourse,pleasegetintouchwithusthroughemailaswell.21．Whatisthemainobjectiveofthismasterclass?A．Toteachtheprocessofpublishingjournals.B．ToguideparticipantsinturningideasintonovelsC．Toprovideinstructionsonwritingbookreviews.D．Toexploreanddiscusstheoriesofmagicalrealism.22．Whatmightbetaughtinthismasterclass?A．Findingideastocomposealecture.B．Obtaininginspirationtocraftabestseller.C．Learningtoanalyzethestructureofanovel.D．Applyinghistoricallanguagetoenhancewriting23．Whatshouldyoudoifyoudon’treceivethelinkasscheduled?A．ReachouttoNatashaPulleyforhelp.B．Seeksupportfromfellowparticipants.C．Contactthecourseproviderviaemail.D．Checkthecoursewebsiteforupdates.BSoaringto29,035feet,thefamousMountEveresthadlongbeenconsideredunclimbableduetothefreezingweather,theobviouspotentialfallfromcliffsandtheeffectsoftheextremehighaltitude,oftencalled“mountainsickness.”ButthatwastobechangedbyEdmundHillary.WhenhewasinvitedtojointheBritishEverestexpeditionin1953,EdmundHillarywasahighlycapableclimber.Theglacier-coveredpeaksinhishometowninNewZealandprovedaperfecttraininggroundfortheHimalaya.ItwashisfourthHimalayanexpeditioninjustovertwoyearsandhewasatthepeakoffitness.OnMay28,1953,EdmundHillaryandTenzingNorgay,anexperiencedSherpa(夏尔巴人)setoutandreachedtheSouthSummitby9a.m.nextday.Butafterthat,theridge(山脊)slightlyfellbeforerisingsuddenlyinarockyspur(尖坡)about17metershighjustbeforethetruesummit.Theformationisdifficulttoclimbduetoitsextremepitchbecauseamistakewouldbedeadly.Scratchingatthesnowwithhisax,Hillarymanagedtoovercomethisenormousobstacle,latertobeknownastheHillaryStep.At11:30a.m,thetwomenfoundthemselvesstandingatthetopoftheworld.“Notuntilwewereabout50feetofthetopwasIevercompletelyconvincedthatwewereactuallygoingtoreachthesummit.”Hillarylaterrecounted,“OfcourseIwasvery,verypleasedtobeonthesummit,butmyfirstthoughtwasalittlebitofsurprise.Afterall,thisistheambitionofallmountaineers.”EmergingasthefirsttosummitMountEverest,HillaryHillarycontinuedbyhelpingexploreAntarctica,andestablishingtheHimalayanTrust(信托基金),throughwhichheprovidedanumberofbeneficialservicestotheHimalayanpeoples.Healsoasizeablelegacythatmountainclimbershavechasedeversince.Asayoungclimbersaid,“ItwasnotjustHillaryandTenzingthatreachedthesummitofMountEverest.Itwasallofhumanity.Suddenly,allofuscouldgo.”24．WhatmadeEdmundHillaryacapableclimberonthe1953expedition?A．Hisundisputedreputation.B．Hisremarkablephysicalcondition.C．HisprevioustrainingonMountEverest.D．Hisexceptionalabilitytoadapttothecold.25．WhatdoestheHillaryStepreferto?A．AmistakeHillaryavoidedmaking.B．AsteepspurofrockHillaryconquered.C．AnaxHillaryusedtoscratchsnow.D．AsuddenfallofaridgeHillaryskipped.26．WhatwasHillary’sinitialfeelinguponreachingthesummitofMountEverest?A．Overwhelmingjoy.B．Enormouspride.C．Completedisbelief.D．Atouchofastonishment.27．WhatwastheimpactofHillary’sachievementonmountaineering?A．Itopensuppossibilitiesforotherclimbers.B．Itenabledhimtogivebacktohishometown.C．Itleftfinancialbenefitsforclimberstopursue.D．Itledtofriendlyregulationsformountaineering.CAreyougoodatinterpretingotherpeople’semotions?Thenthere’sagoodchancethatyou’realsogoodatunderstandingwhatanimalstrytosay.AnewDanish-SwissstudypublishedintheopenjournalRoyalSocietyOpenScienceindicatesthatempathetic(能共情的)peoplearealsogoodatdecoding(解读)animalsounds.Otherfactorsalsoimproveyourchanceofcommunicatingwithanimals—youaremorelikelytobeanimal-empatheticifyoualsoworkwithanimals,andtheabilityseemstopeakinthoseaged20-29yearsold,accordingtothescientists.“Ourresultsshowthat,basedonanimalsounds,peopleareabletotellwhetherananimalisagitated(焦虑不安的)ornotandwhethertheanimalexpressespositiveornegativeemotions,”saysbehaviouralbiologistElodieBrieferfromtheUniversityofCopenhagen’sFacultyofScience.“Thisistrueinconnectionwithanumberofdifferentmammals.Wecanalsoseethatourabilitytointerpretthesoundsdependsonfactorssuchasage,first-handknowledgeofanimals,andnotleasthowempatheticwearetowardsotherpeople.”Thestudywasbasedonanswersfrom1024peopleacross48countries.Theywereintroducedtosoundsfromsixmammals:goats,cattle,domesticatedhorses,Asianwildhorses,pigs,andwildboars.Thesoundsfromthesixanimalswereplayedtothestudy’srespondentstogetherwithsoundsofhumannonsense(胡言乱语)producedbyactors.Afterwards,theparticipantshadtoguesswhetherthesoundsexpressedahighorlowlevelofagitation,andiftheemotionswerepositiveornegative.Followingthetest,theparticipantswereaskedtotakeanempathytestthatmeasuredtheirempathytowardshumanbeings.“Itisaconvincingtestwhichmeasuresempathytowardsotherpeople,”ElodieBrieferexplains.“Andwesawaclearconnectionwiththeabilitytointerpretanimalsounds.”28．Howdoestheauthorintroducethetopicofthepassage?A．Bystatingopinions.B．Byquotingasaying.C．Bygivinganexample.D．Byaskingaquestion.29．Whomightbebestatunderstandinganimalemotionsbasedonthestudy?A．A15-year-oldhard-workingstudent.B．A25-year-oldcaringanimalraiser.C．A29-year-oldexperiencedhunter.D．A30-year-oldfriendlyteacher.30．WhatdoesElodieBrieferthinkofthetestinvolved?A．Doubtful.B．Reliable.C．Ineffective.D．Disappointing.31．Whatcanbeasuitabletitleforthetext?A．HumanempathyextendstoanimalsB．EmotioninterpretationhelpsanimalsC．SoundinterpretationdependsonagesD．EmotionexpressionprotectsanimalsDItisreportedthatendangeredpolarbearsarebreeding(繁殖)withgrizzlybears(灰熊),creating“pizzly”bears,whichisbeingdrivenbyclimatechange.AstheworldwarmsandArcticseaicethins,starvingpolarbearsarebeingforcedeverfurthersouth,wheretheymeetgrizzlies,whoserangesareexpandingnorthwards.Andwiththatgrowingcontactbetweenthetwocomeincreasinghybrids(杂交种).Withcharacteristicsthatcouldgivethehybridsanadvantageinwarmingnorthernhabitats,somescientistsguessthattheycouldbeheretostay.“Usually,hybridsaren’tbettersuitedtotheirenvironmentsthantheirparents,butthesehybridsareabletosearchforabroaderrangeoffoodsources,”LarisaDeSantis,anassociateprofessorofbiologicalsciencesatVanderbiltUniversity,toldLiveScience.Theriseof“pizzly”bearsappearswithpolarbears’decline:theirnumbersareestimatedtodecreasebymorethan30%inthenext30years.Thissuddenfallislinkedpartlyto“pizzly”bearstakinguppolarbears’ranges,wheretheyoutcompetethem,butalsotopolarbears’highlyspecializeddiets.“PolarbearsmainlyconsumedsoftfoodsevenduringtheMedievalWarmPeriod,apreviousperiodofrapidwarming,”DeSantissaid,referringtofatmealssuchasseals.“Althoughallofthesestarvingpolarbearsaretryingtofindalternativefoodsources,likeseabirdeggs,itcouldbeatippingpointfortheirsurvival.”Actually,thecaloriestheygainfromthesesourcesdonotbalanceoutthosetheyburnfromsearchingforthem.Thiscouldresultinahabitatreadyforthehybridstomoveinandtakeover,leadingtoalossinbiodiversityifpolarbearsarereplaced.“We’rehavingmassiveimpactswithclimatechangeonspecies,”DeSantissaid.“Thepolarbearistellingushowbadthingsare.Insomesense,“pizzly”bearscouldbeasadbutnecessarycompromisegivencurrentwarmingtrends.”32．Whyarepolarbearsmovingfurthersouth?A．Tocreatehybrids.B．Toexpandranges.C．Tocontactgrizzlies.D．Torelievehunger.33．Whatenables“pizzly”bearstoadapttonaturalsurroundingsbetterthantheirparents?A．Broaderhabitats.B．Climatepreference.C．Morefoodoptions.D．Improvedbreedingability.34．Whatdoestheunderlinedphrase“atippingpoint”inparagraph5referto?A．Ararechance.B．Acriticalstage.C．Apositivefactor.D．Aconstantchange.35．What’sthemainideaofthetext?A．Polarbearsarechangingdietsforclimatechange.B．Polarbearshavealreadyadjustedtoclimatechange.C．“Pizzly”bearshavereplacedpolarbearsforglobalwarming.D．“Pizzly”bearsareontherisebecauseofglobalwarming.第二节(共5小题:每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。Formostpeopletravelingabroad,theirfirstchoiceisprobablytorushdirectlytotouristsights.Forme.Ifindlotsofjoyingroceryshoppingonholiday.Asavegetarian,findingrestaurantsthatmeetmyneedsisnotalwayseasyabroad.36ThefirstthingIdo,afterdroppingmybagsoff,istogotoagrocerystore.Thatenablesmetocookbreakfastinthemorningwithoutwalkingaroundforhourstryingtofind“veganbreakfast”nearme.ThevarietyoffoodsattractsmeeverytimeItravelsomewherenew.InMalta,Ifoundthemostdeliciouschocolate-filledcakes,theonesIwouldstruggletofindevenintheUK.37IwassodelightedthatIcouldenjoysuchanunexpectedtreat.Anothersurprisewastheirselectionoficecreamavailableeveninthesmallestgrocerystores. 38LookingforsmokedtofuandcornpancakesturnsintoquiteamissionwheneverIvisitCluj-NapocainRomania.Thereisusuallyonlyonevarietyofsmokedtofu,soldinaverysmalltub(食品盒)andonlyinthecafeteriasection.39Thatisbecausetheyareneveravailableatthesmallerones.Groceryshoppingonholidaysoundsunusual.Butitmeansbeinginvolvedintheday-to-daylivesofacountry’scitizens.IcanpretendIamalocalandputmyselfintheirshoes.Icanwatchkidsbeggingtheirparentsforsweets,aninternationalexperiencethatneedsnolanguage,orwatchcouplespickupsnacksanddrinksforapartyonaFridaynight.40A．Iendedupeatingtheseeverydayforbreakfast.B．Thechallengeoffindingfoodisinteresting.too.C．Thesmokedproductisuniqueandspeciallypacked.D．SoIalwaysmakesuretobookaplacewithakitchen.E．It’sanactofunderstandingpeopleasmuchasofbuyingfood.F．Cornpancakesalwaysrequireatriptothebiggergrocerystore.G．Bywanderingaroundinanewcountry,Istarttoseewhattheyvalue.第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共15小题:每小题1分，满分15分)阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。Tidyingyourdesk,wateringyourplants,foldingclothes—thesehouseholdchoresarehardlytheheightofpleasure.YetIoftenfindmyself41theselittletasks.IfI’mstuckinwriter’sblockwithadeadline42,I’llhavetoclearupthepapersplacedaroundmyoffice—andit’ssometimesthemost43Ifeelallday.I’mnot44inthis.Aswefacedthestressesofthepandemic,manypeoplereportedfindingrenewedinterestin45theirhomesasawayofcopingwithuncertainty.Psychologistssuggesttherearemanypotentialmechanisms(机制)thatcanexplainthepleasurefromthesetasksandtheirbenefits-thesemaywellencourageyouto46theseoddjobsmoreoften.Littlechoresmaybeusefulbecausethey47themind,leadingustodevotefewerresourcestothethingsthat48us.Evenifwestrugglewithactivitiesthataremeanttohelpusrelax,wemayfindhouseholdtaskscanhelpusappreciatethehereandnow.Butthisdependsonwhereweplaceour49.Inoneofthefewstudiestoexaminethementalhealthbenefitsofwashingthedishes,researchersatFloridaStateUniversitydivided5150intotwogroups.Halfreadatextthatencouragedthemto51focustheirthoughtsontheactivity.“Whilewashingthedishes,oneshouldbecompletely52ofthefactthatoneiswashingthedishes,”theyweretold.Therestreadfactualinstructionsonhowtodowashingupwithoutbeingencouragedtofocustheirawarenessontheactivity.Afterwards,theparticipantswereaskedtotakeaquestionnaireabouttheir53.Thosewhohadfullyengagedwiththeexperiencereportedasignificantlybettermood.Thisincluded54nervousnessandevenasenseof“inspiration”,asifthesimpleactivityhad55theirminds.41．A．ignoringB．enjoyingC．avoidingD．simplifying42．A．agreedB．establishedC．passingD．approaching43．A．relaxedB．boredC．worriedD．annoyed44．A．confidentB．fitC．aloneD．stuck45．A．openingupB．settingupC．returningtoD．lookingafter46．A．dealwithB．giveupC．learnaboutD．engagein47．A．occupyB．broadenC．motivateD．challenge48．A．interestB．botherC．delightD．surprise49．A．focusB．hopeC．emphasisD．happiness50．A．dishesB．householdsC．participantsD．tasks51．A．entirelyB．quicklyC．mainlyD．initially52．A．sureB．proudC．gladD．aware53．A．interestsB．abilitiesC．feelingsD．habits54．A．continuedB．increasedC．unexplainedD．reduced55．A．slippedB．refreshedC．developedD．exhausted第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共15小题:每小题1分，满分15分)阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。HowYourNoseBeatsBacteriaScientistshavediscoveredanincredibledefencesysteminthehumannose.Yournoseisapowerfulweapon56harmfulbacteriaenteringyourbody.Whenyoubreatheinthroughyournose,youbreatheinhundredsofdifferent57(type)ofbacteria,someof58canmakeyouill.Cells59(line)theinsideofyournoseproduceastickymucus(黏液)thattrapsthesetinymicrobugs,andsmallhairsmovethemucusoutofyournoseortothebackofyourthroat. 60scientistsfromMassachusettsEyeandEar,aspecialistteachinghospitalintheUS,havefoundisthatyournosecellsnotonlyproducemucus,butalsotinysacs(囊)calledexosomes.Theseexosomesarefilledwithantibacterialsubstancesthatkillbacteriadirectly.They61(release)intheirbillionsatthefirstsignof62(infect).Theyalsogetaboostfromthesystemthatgetsmucus63(move)outofyournose.Thetransportsystemoftinyhairssweepsexosomesbackwards,alertingthecellsatthebackofthenosetotheincomingdangerandarmingthemwithantibacterialproteins64(fight)offthebugs.Scientistshadthoughtthattheimmunesystemonlyworkedinsidethebody,butthisshowsthatitprotectsyououtsideyourbody,too.“Wehavedemonstratedin65livepatientthattheimmunesystemreachesoutsideofthebody,andactuallygoesandattackspathogens(病原体)beforetheygetintothebody,”saysBenjaminBleier.第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)第一节(满分15分)假如你是李华，正在主持学校英语戏剧表演大赛(EnglishPlayContest)的颁奖活动，请为获得第一名的Darcy团队的戏剧表演写一则颁奖词,内容包括:1.表示祝贺；2.获奖原因。注意:1,写作词数应为100左右;Dearall,________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________第二节(满分25分)阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。Ramustartedabusinesswithgreatenthusiasmbutjustafterafewmonthshisbusinesswentunder.TimepassedbutRamudidn’tstartanynewwork.Histeachergottoknowabouthissituationandcalledhimtohishome.Theteacherasked,“Whydon’tyoustartsomeotherwork?”Ramureplied,“Igavemyeverythingtomybusinessandyetitstillfailed.”Theteachertriedtocomforthim,saying“Butthat’slife.Sometimeswegetsuccessandsometimeswedon’t.Thisdoesn’tmeanthatwestopworking.”“What’sthepointofdoingwork,whenIcan’tbesureofsuccess?”Ramurepliedwithabitofannoyance.TheteachertookRamutoaroomandshowedhimadeadtomatoplant.Ramuwasconfusedandsaid,“It’sdead.Whyareyoushowingittome?”Theteacherreplied,“WhenIsoweditsseed,Idideverythingrightforit.Iwateredit,fertilizedit,sprayeditwithpesticide(杀虫剂).Itookgreatcareofitbutitstilldied.”Hestoppedforawhileandthensaid,“Doingworkisthesame...Nomatterhowhardyoutry,youcannotdecidewhathappensintheend.However,youcancontrolthosethingsinyourhands.Justdoyourbest!”Ramuasked,“Butifthereisnoguaranteeofsuccessthenwhat’stheuseofdoinganything?”Theteachersaid,“You’dbetternotthinklikethat...”“What’swrongwiththat...Ihavegivensomuchhardwork,somuchmoney,somuchtime;ifsuccessisonlyamatterofchance,thenwhatistheuseofdoingsomuch?”saidRamuandhewasabouttoleave.Justthentheteacherstoppedhimandsaid,“Beforeyouleave,Iwanttoshowyouonemorething.”注意：续写词数应为150左右；请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。HetookRamutoanotherroomandopenedthedoor.______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Atthatverymoment,Ramureadthelessonofsuccess.____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）56．against57．types58．which59．lining60．What61．arereleased62．infection63．moved64．tofight65．a第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）第一节（满分15分）【参考范文】Dearall,IwouldliketoextendmywarmestcongratulationstoDarcyteamforwinningthefirstprizeintheEnglishPlayContest.Yourperformanceleftagoodimpressiononothersduetooutstandingacting,storyline,andstagedesign.Thecreativity,harmony,andprofessionalismshownwereremarkable.Youcreatedemotionalresonancewiththeaudience.Yourhardwork,teamspirit,andtalentsetahighbarforall.Thankstoeveryoneinvolved.Let’slookforwardtomoreinspiringperformancesinthefuture.CongratulationsagaintoDarcyteam!应用文写作评分标准一、评分原则1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。3.词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。6.如书写较差，以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。二、各档次的给分范围和要求档次描述第五档(13～15分)完全完成了试题规定的任务。-覆盖所有内容要点。-应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。-语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但因尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。-有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。第四档(10～12分)完全完成了试题规定的任务。-虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。-应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。-语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。-应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。第三档(7～9分)基本完成了试题规定的任务。-虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。-应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。-有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。-应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。第二档(4～6分)未适当完成试题规定的任务。-漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。-语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。-有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。-较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。第一档未完成试题规定的任务。-明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。-语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。-较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。-缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。第二节（满分25分）【参考范文】HetookRamutoanotherroomandopenedthedoor.Therewasapileofbigredtomatoeslyingthere.Ramuasked.“Whyareyoushowingmethis?”Justthentheteachersaid.“Thesetomatoesaretheresultofnotgivingupongrowingplants.Similarly,ifyoukeepdoingtherightthings,yourchancesofgettingsuccessaregreatlyincreased.Butifyougiveupbecauseofoneortwofailures,lifewillrewardyouwithnothing.”Atthatverymoment,Ramureadthelessonofsuccess.Heunderstoodwhathehadtodonowandleftwithadifferentidea.Heconductedsomemarketresearchandstartedanewbusiness.Noonecouldguaranteehewouldsucceedthistimebuttherewasachance.LikeRamu,manypeoplemaketheirfailureasareasonfornottryingfurther.Itistruethatnomatterhowhardwetry,wecannotcontroltheresult.Butitisalsotruethatthosewhokeeptryingtogetsuccesswillgetittomorrowifnottoday.Everyfailureisasteptowardsuccess.读后续写评分原则一、评分标准1.本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。2.评分时，主要从续写内容、语言表达、篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性及与原文情景的融洽度。（2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。3.评分时，应先根据作答的具体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。4.评分时还应注意：（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分；（2）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分；（3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。二、各档次的给分范围和要求第七档（22—25分）创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解；自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。第六档（18—21分）创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义比较连贯。第五档（15—17分）创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。第四档（11—14分）创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关；使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。第三档（6—10分）内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节；所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解；未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。第二档（1—5分）内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节；所使