2022年高考英语真题及答案(新高考全国Ⅰ卷)

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新高考全国Ⅰ卷）英语第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.Whatwillthespeakersdonext?A.Checkthemap. B.Leavetherestaurant. C.Parkthecar.2.Wherearethespeakers?A.Atabusstop. B.Athome. C.Attheairport.3.Whatdidthespeakersdolastweek?A.Theyhadacelebrationdinner.B.Theywenttoseeanewbornbaby.C.Theysentamailtotheirneighbors.4.Whydoesthemanmakethephonecall?A.Tocancelaweekendtrip. B.Tomakeanappointment.C.Togetsomeinformation.5.Whatdoesthemanprobablywanttodo?A.Dosomeexercise. B.Getanextrakey. C.Orderroomservice.第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独自读两遍。听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。6.Whydoesthewomancometotheman?A.Toaskforpermission. B.Toextendaninvitation. C.Toexpressthanks.7.Whenarethestudentsgoingtothemuseum?A.OnFriday. B.OnSaturday. C.OnSunday.听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。8.Whatarethespeakerstalkingabout?A.Buyinggroceries. B.Choosinggifts. C.Seeingfriends.9.WhoisClara?A.Theman’swife. B.Theman’ssister. C.Theman’sdaughter.10.Howmuchdidthemanspendonthecitypasses?A.$36. B.$50. C.$150.听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。11.WhydidTracybringdogstothechildren?A.Toteachthemtoloveanimals.B.TohelpthemgainconfidenceC.Toprotectthemfromdangers.12.WhatisKevin’sconcernaboutthedog?A.Theymaymisbehave. B.Theymaygethurt. C.Theymaycarrydiseases.13.WhatwillHelendotomorrowmorning?A.Giveatalk. B.Meetthechildren. C.Takesomephotos.听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。14.Whatisthemandoing?A.Attendingalecture. B.Hostingaworkshop. C.Conductinganinterview.15.WhyisEmilydoingunpaidworkinthenewseasonoftheshow?A.Tofollowthelatesttrend.B.Tohelpraisethecrew’spay.C.Tosupportthepost-production.16.WhatenablesEmilytotrydifferentthingsinherfield?A.Hercollegeeducation.B.Herteachingexperience.C.Herfamilytradition.17.WhatdoesEmilythinkofherworkattheFilmCentre?A.Boring. B.Rewarding. C.Demanding听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。18.Whoisthespeakertalkingto?A.Sportsclubmembers. B.Internationaltourists. C.Universitystudents.19.WheredidEmmaworkforarugbyteam?A.InManchester. B.InDublin. C.InVancouver.20.WhatcanbeachallengetoEmma’swork?A.Competitioninthehealthcareindustry.B.Discriminationagainstfemalescientists.C.Influenceofmisinformationonthepublic.第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。AGradingPoliciesforIntroductiontoLiteratureGradingScale90-100,A;80-89,B;70-79,C;60-69,D;Below60,E.Essays（60%）Yourfourmajoressayswillcombinetoformthemainpartofthegradeforthiscourse:Essay1=10%;Essay2=15%;Essay3=15%;Essay4=20%GroupAssignments（30%）Studentswillworkingroupstocompletefourassignments（作业）duringthecourse.AlltheassignmentswillbesubmittedbytheassigneddatethroughBlackboard,ouronlinelearningandcoursemanagementsystem.DailyWork/In-ClassWritingsandTests/GroupWork/Homework（10%）Classactivitieswillvaryfromdaytoday,butstudentsmustbereadytocompleteshortin-classwritingsortestsdrawndirectlyfromassignedreadingsornotesfromthepreviousclass’lecture/discussion,soitisimportanttotakecarefulnotesduringclass.Additionally,fromtimetotimeIwillassigngroupworktobecompletedinclassorshortassignmentstobecompletedathome,bothofwhichwillbegraded.LateWorkAnessaynotsubmittedinclassontheduedatewilllosealettergradeforeachclassperioditislate.Ifitisnotturnedinbythe4thdayaftertheduedate,itwillearnazero.Dailyassignmentsnotcompletedduringclasswillgetazero.Shortwritingsmissedasaresultofanexcusedabsencewillbeaccepted.21.Whereisthistextprobablytakenfrom?A.Atextbook. B.Anexampaper. C.Acourseplan. D.Anacademicarticle.22.Howmanypartsisastudent’sfinalgrademadeupof?A.Two. B.Three. C.Four. D.Five.23.Whatwillhappenifyousubmitanessayoneweekaftertheduedate?A.Youwillreceiveazero. B.Youwilllosealettergrade.C.Youwillbegivenatest. D.Youwillhavetorewriteit.BLikemostofus,Itrytobemindfuloffoodthatgoestowaste.Thearugula(芝麻菜)wastomakeanicegreensalad,roundingoutaroastchickendinner.ButIendedupworkinglate.Thenfriendscalledwithadinnerinvitation.Istuckthechickeninthefreezer.Butasdayspassed,thearugulawentbad.Evenworse,Ihadunthinkinglyboughtwaytoomuch;IcouldhavemadesixsaladswithwhatIthrewout.Inaworldwherenearly800millionpeopleayeargohungry,“foodwastegoesagainstthemoralgrain,”asElizabethRoytewritesinthismonth’scoverstory.It’sjaw-droppinghowmuchperfectlygoodfoodisthrownaway—from“ugly”(butquiteeatable)vegetablesrejectedbygrocerstolargeamountsofuneatendishesthrownintorestaurantgarbagecans.Producingfoodthatnooneeatswastesthewater,fuel,andotherresourcesusedtogrowit.Thatmakesfoodwasteanenvironmentalproblem.Infact,Roytewrites,“iffoodwastewereacountry,itwouldbethethirdlargestproducerofgreenhousegasesintheworld.”Ifthat’shardtounderstand,let’skeepitassimpleasthearugulaatthebackofmyrefrigerator.MikeCurtinseesmyarugulastoryallthetime—butforhim,it’smorelike12bonesofdonatedstrawberriesnearingtheirlastdays.CurtinisCEOofDCCentralKitcheninWashington,D.C.,whichrecoversfoodandturnsitintohealthymeals.Lastyearitrecoveredmorethan807,500poundsoffoodbytakingdonationsandcollectingblemished(有瑕疵的)producethatotherwisewouldhaverottedinfields.Andthestrawberries?Volunteerswillwash,cut,andfreezeordrythemforuseinmealsdowntheroad.Suchmethodsseemobvious,yetsooftenwejustdon’tthink.“Everyonecanplayapartinreducingwaste,whetherbynotpurchasingmorefoodthannecessaryinyourweeklyshoppingorbyaskingrestaurantstonotincludethesidedishyouwon’teat,”Curtinsays.24.Whatdoestheauthorwanttoshowbytellingthearugulastory?A.Wepaylittleattentiontofoodwaste. B.Wewastefoodunintentionallyattimes.C.Wewastemorevegetablesthanmeat. D.Wehavegoodreasonsforwastingfood.25.Whatisaconsequenceoffoodwasteaccordingtothetext?A.Moraldecline. B.Environmentalharm.C.Energyshortage. D.Worldwidestarvation.26.WhatdoesCurtin’scompanydo?A.Itproduceskitchenequipment. B.Itturnsrottenarugulaintocleanfuel.C.Ithelpslocalfarmersgrowfruits D.Itmakesmealsoutofunwantedfood.27.WhatdoesCurtinsuggestpeopledo?A.Buyonlywhatisneeded. B.Reducefoodconsumption.C.Goshoppingonceaweek. D.Eatinrestaurantslessoften.CTheelderlyresidents(居民)incarehomesinLondonarebeinggivenhenstolookaftertostopthemfeelinglonely.Theprojectwasdreamedupbyalocalcharity(慈善组织)toreducelonelinessandimproveelderlypeople’swellbeing,Itisalsobeingusedtohelppatientssufferingdementia,aseriousillnessofthemind.Staffincarehomeshavereportedareductionintheuseofmedicinewherehensareinuse.Amongthosetakingpartintheprojectis80-year-oldRuthXavier.Shesaid:“IusedtokeephenswhenIwasyoungerandhadtopreparetheirbreakfasteachmorningbeforeIwenttoschool.“Iliketheprojectalot.Iamdownthereinmywheelchairinthemorninglettingthehensoutanddownthereagainatnighttoseethey’vegonetobed.“It’sgoodtohaveadifferentfocus.Peoplehavebeenbringingtheirchildrenintoseethehensandresidentscomeandsitoutsidetowatchthem.I’menjoyingthecreativeactivities,anditfeelsgreattohavedonesomethinguseful.”Therearenow700elderlypeoplelookingafterhensin20carehomesintheNorthEast,andthecharityhasbeengivenfinancialsupporttorollitoutcountrywide.WendyWilson,extracaremanagerat60PenfoldStreet,oneofthefirsttoembarkontheproject,said:“Residentsreallywelcometheideaoftheprojectandthecreativesessions.Wearelookingforwardtothebenefitsandfuntheprojectcanbringtopeoplehere.”LynnLewis,directorofNottingHillPathways,said:“Wearehappytobetakingpartintheproject.Itwillreallyhelpconnectourresidentsthroughasharedinterestandcreativeactivities.”28.Whatisthepurposeoftheproject?A.Toensureharmonyincarehomes. B.Toprovidepart-timejobsfortheaged.C.Toraisemoneyformedicalresearch. D.Topromotetheelderlypeople’swelfare.29.HowhastheprojectaffectedRuthXavier?A.Shehaslearnednewlifeskills. B.Shehasgainedasenseofachievement.C.Shehasrecoveredhermemory. D.Shehasdevelopedastrongpersonality.30.Whatdotheunderlinedwords“embarkon”meaninparagraph7?A.Improve. B.Oppose. C.Begin. D.Evaluate.31.Whatcanwelearnabouttheprojectfromthelasttwoparagraphs?A.Itiswellreceived. B.Itneedstobemorecreative.C.Itishighlyprofitable. D.Ittakesagestoseetheresults.DHumanspeechcontainsmorethan2,000differentsounds,fromthecommon“m”and“a”totherareclicksofsomesouthernAfricanlanguages.Butwhyarecertainsoundsmorecommonthanothers?Aground-breaking,five-yearstudyshowsthatdiet-relatedchangesinhumanbiteledtonewspeechsoundsthatarenowfoundinhalftheworld’slanguages.Morethan30yearsago,thescholarCharlesHockettnotedthatspeechsoundscalledlabiodentals,suchas“f”and“v”,weremorecommoninthelanguagesofsocietiesthatatesofterfoods.NowateamofresearchersledbyDamiánBlasiattheUniversityofZurich,Switzerland,hasfoundhowandwhythistrendarose.Theydiscoveredthattheupperandlowerfrontteethofancienthumanadultswerealigned(对齐),makingithardtoproducelabiodentals,whichareformedbytouchingthelowerliptotheupperteeth.Later,ourjawschangedtoanoverbitestructure(结构),makingiteasiertoproducesuchsounds.TheteamshowedthatthischangeinbitewasconnectedwiththedevelopmentofagricultureintheNeolithicperiod.Foodbecameeasiertochewatthispoint.Thejawbonedidn’thavetodoasmuchworkandsodidn’tgrowtobesolarge.AnalysesofalanguagedatabasealsoconfirmedthattherewasaglobalchangeinthesoundofworldlanguagesaftertheNeolithicage,withtheuseof“f”and“v”increasingremarkablyduringthelastfewthousandyears.Thesesoundsarestillnotfoundinthelanguagesofmanyhunter-gathererpeopletoday.Thisresearchoverturnsthepopularviewthatallhumanspeechsoundswerepresentwhenhumanbeingsevolvedaround300,000yearsago.“Thesetofspeechsoundsweusehasnotnecessarilyremainedstablesincetheappearanceofhumanbeings,butratherthehugevarietyofspeechsoundsthatwefindtodayistheproductofacomplexinterplayofthingslikebiologicalchangeandculturalevolution,”saidStevenMoran,amemberoftheresearchteam.32.WhichaspectofthehumanspeechsounddoesDamiánBlasi’sresearchfocuson?A.Itsvariety. B.Itsdistribution. C.Itsquantity. D.Itsdevelopment.33.Whywasitdifficultforancienthumanadultstoproducelabiodentals?A.Theyhadfewerupperteeththanlowerteeth.B.Theycouldnotopenandclosetheirlipseasily.C.Theirjawswerenotconvenientlystructured.D.Theirlowerfrontteethwerenotlargeenough.34.Whatisparagraph5mainlyabout?A.Supportingevidencefortheresearchresults.B.Potentialapplicationoftheresearchfindings.C.Afurtherexplanationoftheresearchmethods.D.Areasonabledoubtabouttheresearchprocess.35.WhatdoesStevenMoransayaboutthesetofhumanspeechsounds?A.Itiskeytoeffectivecommunication. B.Itcontributesmuchtoculturaldiversity.C.Itisacomplexanddynamicsystem. D.Itdrivestheevolutionofhumanbeings.第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。FitnessMagazinerecentlyrananarticletitled“FiveReasonstoThankYourWorkoutPartner.”Onereasonwas:“You’llactuallyshowupifyouknowsomeoneiswaitingforyouatthegym,”whileanotherread:“36”Withaworkoutpartner,youwillincreaseyourtrainingeffortasthereisasubtle(微妙)competition.So,howdoyoufindaworkoutpartner?Firstofall,decidewhatyouwantfromthatperson.37Ordoyoujustwanttobephysicallyfit,abletomovewithstrengthandflexibility?Thinkabouttheexercisesyouwouldliketodowithyourworkoutpartner.Youmightthinkaboutpostingwhatyouarelookingforonsocialmedia,butitprobablywon’tresultinausefulresponse.38Ifyouplanonworkingoutinagym,thatpersonmustbelongtothesamegym.Mypartnerpostedherrequestonthenoticeboardofalocalpark.Hernoticeincludedwhatkindoftrainingshewantedtodo,howmanydaysaweekandhowmanyhoursshewantedtospendoneachsession,andherage.Italsolistedherfavoritesportsandactivities,andprovidedherphonenumber.39Youandyourpartnerwillprobablyhavedifferentskills.40Overtime,bothofyouwillbenefit—yourpartnerwillbeabletoliftmoreweightsandyouwillbecomemorephysicallyfit.Thecore(核心)ofyourrelationshipisthatyouwillalwaysbetheretohelpeachother.A.Yourfirstmeetingmaybealittleawkward.B.Aworkoutpartnerusuallyneedstolivecloseby.C.You’llworkharderifyoutrainwithsomeoneelse.D.Doyouwanttobeabetterathleteinyourfavoritesport?E.Howcanyouwriteagood“seekingtrainingpartner”notice?F.Justacceptyourdifferencesandlearntoworkwitheachother.G.Anynoticeforatrainingpartnershouldincludesuchinformation.第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。Myhusband,ourchildrenandIhavehadwonderfulcampingexperiencesoverthepasttenyears.Someofour41arefunny,especiallyfromtheearlyyearswhenourchildrenwerelittle.Once,we42alongChalkCreek.Iwas43thatour15-month-oldboywouldfallintothecreek(小溪).Itiedaropearoundhiswaisttokeephimneartoourspot.Thatlastedabouttenminutes.Hewas44,andhiscryingletthewholecampgroundknowit.So45tyinghimup,Ijustkeptacloseeyeonhim.It46—hedidn’tendupinthecreek.Mythree-year-old,however,did.Anothertime,werentedaboatinVallecitoLake.Theskywasclearwhenwe47,butstormsmoveinfastinthemountains,andthisonequickly48ourpeacefulmorningtrip.The49pickedupandthunderrolled.Myhusbandstoppedfishingto50themotor.Nothing.Hetriedagain.No51.Wewerestuckinthemiddleofthelakewithadeadmotor.Asweallsatthere52,afishermanpulledup,threwusaropeandtowed(拖)usback.Wewere53.Now,everyyearwhenmyhusbandpullsourcamperoutofthegarage,wearefilledwithasenseof54,wonderingwhatcampingfunand55wewillexperiencenext.41.A.ideas B.jokes C.memories D.discoveries42.A.camped B.drove C.walked D.cycled43.A.annoyed B.surprised C.disappointed D.worried44.A.unhurt B.unfortunate C.uncomfortable D.unafraid45.A.dueto B.insteadof C.apartfrom D.asfor46.A.worked B.happened C.mattered D.changed47.A.signedup B.calmeddown C.checkedout D.headedoff48.A.arranged B.interrupted C.completed D.recorded49.A.wind B.noise C.temperature D.speed50.A.find B.hide C.start D.fix51.A.luck B.answer C.wonder D.signal52.A.patiently B.tirelessly C.doubtfully D.helplessly53.A.sorry B.brave C.safe D.right54.A.relief B.duty C.pride D.excitement55.A.failure B.adventure C.performance D.conflict第二节（共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。TheChinesegovernmentrecentlyfinalizedaplantosetupaGiantPandaNationalPark(GPNP).56(cover)anareaaboutthreetimes57sizeofYellowstoneNationalPark,theGPNPwillbeoneofthefirstnationalparksinthecountry.Theplanwillextendprotectiontoasignificantnumberofareasthat58(be)previouslyunprotected,bringingmanyoftheexistingprotectedareasforgiantpandasunderoneauthority59(increase)effectivenessandreduceinconsistenciesinmanagement.Afterathree-yearpilotperiod,theGPNPwillbeofficiallysetupnextyear.TheGPNP60(design)toreflecttheguidingprincipleof“protectingtheauthenticityandintegrity(完整性)ofnaturalecosystems,preservingbiologicaldiversity,protectingecologicalbufferzones,61leavingbehindpreciousnaturalassets(资产)forfuturegenerations”.TheGPNP’smaingoalistoimproveconnectivitybetweenseparate62(population)andhomesofgiantpandas,and63(eventual)achieveadesiredlevelofpopulationinthewild.Giantpandasalsoserve64anumbrellaspecies(物种),bringingprotectiontoahostofplantsandanimalsinthesouthwesternandnorthwesternpartsofChina.TheGPNPisintendedtoprovidestrongerprotectionforallthespecies65livewithintheGiantPandaRangeandsignificantlyimprovethehealthoftheecosysteminthearea.第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）第一节（满分15分）假定你是校广播站英语节目”TalkandTalk”的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：1.节目介绍；2.访谈的时间和话题。注意：1.写作词数应为80左右；2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。DearCaroline,Yourssincerely,LiHua第二节（满分25分）阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。Itwasthedayofthebigcross-countryrun.Studentsfromsevendifferentprimaryschoolsinandaroundthesmalltownwerewarmingupandwalkingtheroute(路线)throughthickevergreenforest.IlookedaroundandfinallyspottedDavid,whowasstandingbyhimselfofftothesidebyafence.Hewassmallfortenyearsold.Hisusualbigtoothysmilewasabsenttoday.Iwalkedoverandaskedhimwhyhewasn’twiththeotherchildren.Hehesitatedandthensaidhehaddecidednottorun.Whatwaswrong?Hehadworkedsohardforthisevent!Iquicklysearchedthecrowdfortheschool’scoachandaskedhimwhathadhappened.“Iwasafraidthatkidsfromotherschoolswouldlaughathim,”heexplaineduncomfortably.“Igavehimthechoicetorunornot,andlethimdecide.”Ibitbackmyfrustration(懊恼).Iknewthecoachmeantwell—hethoughthewasdoingtherightthing.AftermakingsurethatDavidcouldrunifhewanted,Iturnedtofindhimcomingtowardsme,hissmallbodyrockingfromsidetosideasheswunghisfeetforward.Davidhadabraindiseasewhichpreventedhimfromwalkingorrunninglikeotherchildren,butatschoolhisclassmatesthoughtofhimasaregularkid.Healwaysparticipatedtothebestofhisabilityinwhatevertheyweredoing.ThatwaswhynoneofthechildrenthoughtitunusualthatDavidhaddecidedtojointhecross-countryteam.Itjusttookhimlonger—that’sall.Davidhadnotmissedasinglepractice,andalthoughhealwaysfinishedhisrunlongaftertheotherchildren,hedidalwaysfinish.Asaspecialeducationteacherattheschool,IwasfamiliarwiththechallengesDavidfacedandwasproudofhisstrongdetermination.注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.Wesatdownnexttoeachother,butDavidwouldn’tlookatme.IwatchedasDavidmoveduptothestartinglinewiththeotherrunners.2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新高考全国Ⅰ卷）英语参考答案第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)1.C2.B3.A4.B5.B6.D7.A8.D9.B10.C11.A12.D13.C14.A15.C第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)16.C17.D18.B19.G20.F第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)21.C22.A23.D24.C25.B26.A27.D28.B29.A30.C31.A32.D3