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硚口区2024-2025学年度第二学期期中学业质量检测七年级英语试卷区教研室命制 2025.4.17第一部分客观题(共80分)一、听力测试(本大题共30分,每小题1分)第一节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分) 听下面5段对话,根据你所听到的内容,从所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中,选出与你所听内容相符的图片。听完每段对话后,你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话仅读一遍。 第二节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分) 听下面5个问题,每个问题后有三个答语,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后,你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。6. A.Salad. B.Tiger. C.Mobilephone.7. A.Inthemorning. B.Inthehallways. C.Atschool.8. A.Withfriends. B.Twiceaweek. C.Byjogging.9. A.Beef. B.Cookies. C.Water.10. A.Athome. B.David. C.OnMonday.第三节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分) 听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。11.Whichanimaldoesthegirllikeatthezoo? A.Monkeys. B.Pandas. C.Lions.12.Whendoestheboyhavetofinishhishomework? A.By9PM. B.Afterdinner. C.OnSunday.13.Howdoesthegirlkeepfiteveryday? A.Playingsoccer. B.Running. C.Swimming.14.Whatdoesthegirleatforbreakfast? A.Sandwiches. B.Porridgewithfruits. C.Friedrice.15.Whendoestheboyeathisfavoritefood? A.OnNewYear’sDay. B.Onweekends. C.Insummer.第四节(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) 听下面4段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,根据所听材料内容,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段材料,回答16-18题。16.Whatsportdothespeakersplantodothisweekend? A.Swimming. B.Basketball. C.Cycling.17.Whattimewillthespeakersmeet? A.8:30AM. B.9:00AM. C.9:30AM.18.Wherewillthespeakersmeet? A.Atthepark. B.Atthelibrary. C.Attheschoolplayground. 听下面一段材料,回答19-22题。19.Whatdoesthewomanorder? A.Fishandchips. B.Grilledchicken. C.Burger.20.Whichsidesdoesthewomanchoose? A.Frenchfriesandsalad. B.Riceandvegetables. C.Potatoesandbeans.21.Whatdrinkdoesthewomanaskfor? A.Icedtea. B.Cola. C.Lemonade.22.Howlongwilltheordertaketoprepare? A.10minutes. B.20minutes. C.30minutes. 听下面一段材料,回答23-26题。23.Whatdostudentshavetoweareveryday? A.Jeans. B.Shorts. C.Schoolclothes.24.Whathappensifyoucomelate? A.Youcangetaletter. B.Youcan’tgotoclass. C.Youcallyourparents.25.Whenmuststudentshandinhomework? A.ByMonday. B.ByFriday. C.BySaturday.26.WhichclubdoesAnnatalkabout? A.Scienceclub. B.Soccerclub. C.Musicclub. 听下面一段材料,回答27-30题。27.WheredoesLilyputbread? A.Onthedesk. B.Inthepark. C.Onthewindowledge.28.WhatdoesLilycallthebravebird? A.Tweet. B.Lucky. C.Max.29.WhendothebirdsvisitLily? A.Everymorning. B.Everyafternoon. C.Everyevening.30.WhatdothebirdsdowhenLilyarrives? A.Flyaway. B.Singonthetree. C.Makeloudnoises.二、选择填空(每小题1分,共5分) 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。31.Whichoftheunderlinedlettershasthedifferentpronunciation? A.fit B.kill C.ride D.litter32. —____________? —Beefandtomatonoodles,please. A.Whatdoyouusuallyhaveforbreakfast B.Whataboutchickennoodles C.Wouldyoulikenoodleswithtomatoes D.Whatwouldyouliketoorder33. —The____________saysthatwecan’tbringourmobilephonestoclass. —I’msorry!I’llputitinmylocker. A.goal B.culture C.rule D.article34. —Doyouthinkanimalsarepartofourlives? —Ofcourse.They’reour____________friendsevenfamilymembers. A.useful B.close C.dangerous D.soft35. —Doyouthinkfriendsshouldhelpusevenwhenwe’remakingbadchoices? —Ofcoursenot!Wehaveto____________therightfriendswhoencourageustodogoodthings. A.pick B.treat C.follow D.understand三、完形填空(每小题1分,共15分) 阅读下列语篇,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。 YoumightthinkthatstudentsintheUShavelittlehomeworkorthattheirteachersaretoo36.Youmightalsothinkthattheyhave37rulesorthattheydon’tworkhardatschool.But38IwenttoschoolintheUS,Ifoundthatnotallthesethingswere39.Let’stakea40atadayatmyschool. 1.41at6amforschool. 2.Gotoclass.Manystudentstakeclasseshigherthantheir42.Therearelotsofrulesinschools.Sometimes,youcan’teven43nicknames(绰号). 3.Schoolis44.Thereislittlehomework,butthereis45todothanthat.Studentshavealotofafter-school46todo,suchasdrama,swimming,golf,art,andmanymore.InChina,manystudentsdosuchthings47onceaweek.ButUSstudentsdothemfor48aday,everydayoftheweek. StudentsintheUSmighthavemore49timethanthoseinChina,50theyarehardworkerstoo.36. A.lucky B.awful C.sweet D.nice37. A.few B.little C.afew D.alittle38. A.among B.behind C.after D.around39. A.friendly B.true C.polite D.fit40. A.hear B.listen C.see D.look41. A.Getup B.Putup C.Pickup D.Situp42. A.order B.trick C.grade D.spirit43. A.follow B.use C.respect D.treat44. A.enough B.away C.instead D.over45. A.more B.most C.much D.many46. A.habits B.results C.activities D.progress47. A.however B.just C.quite D.seldom48. A.moments B.seconds C.minutes D.hours49. A.free B.busy C.long D.tired50. A.and B.or C.but D.so四、阅读理解(每小题2分,共30分) 阅读下列语篇,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。A51.Whatcanyouhaveforbreakfastintherestaurant? A.Tacos. B.Noodles. C.Toastie. D.Waffles.52.WhatdoestherestaurantNOThave? A.Breakfast. B.Desserts. C.Drinks. D.Salads.53.Whichcategorydoes“Chickenchips”belongto? A.Breakfast. B.Drinks. C.Snacks. D.Burgers.54.Ifyouwanttohavehashbrowns,acupofmilkandadessert,youshouldspendatleast____________. A.$8.00 B.$9.80 C.$10.00 D.$11.0055.Ifyouhave$6.50,whatcanyouchoosetohave? A.Sausagerollsandalargemilk. B.Piesandaquawater. C.Chickenhamrollsandswings D.Chickenchips,oakmilkandicycups.B Everymorning,Iwakeupat6:00a.m.andputonmyrunningshoes.Mydadwaitsformeatthedoor,andwejogtothenearbyparktogether.Atfirst,Ihatewakingupearly,andmylegsfeelheavy.ButDadalwayssays,“Consistency(坚持)isthekey!” Werunaroundthelakethreetimes.SometimesIwanttostop,butDadencouragesme:“Focusonyourbreathing(呼吸)!”Slowly,mystaminaimproves. Lastweek,ourschoolhelda1,000-meterrace.Istaycalm,keepmypace,andfinishfifth-muchbetterthanmyoldlast-placeresult. Now,Ienjoyourmorningruns.Thefreshairclearsmymind,andIfeelstrongerinPEclass.Myclassmatesask,“Howdidyougetfaster?”Ismileandanswer,“Justkeeppracticing!”56.Whattimedoesthewriterwakeupeverymorning? A.5:30a.m. B.6:00a.m. C.6:30a.m. D.7:00a.m.57.WheredothewriterandDadrun? A.Onaschooltrack. B.Inagym. C.Bytheriver. D.Inapark.58.WhatdoesDadsaytoencouragethewriter? A.Runfasterthanothers! B.Buynewshoes! C.Focusonyourbreathing! D.Eatmorevegetables!59.Howdidthewriterperformintherecentrace? A.Finishedfifth. B.Finishedlast. C.Gaveuphalfway. D.Wonfirstplace.60.Whatisthemainmessageofthestory? A.Racingisstressful. B.Regularpracticeleadstoprogress. C.Sleepingearlyisimportant. D.Parentsshouldpushchildrenharder.C Welldone,Vito!Thepug(哈巴狗)isthewinnerofthe2024NationalDogShowintheUS. Vitois2.5yearsold.Itissmallandstrong.Ajudge(裁判)calledit“everythingapugshouldbe”.Pugshavebig,shinyeyesandwrinkled(皱巴巴的)faces.Thisgivesthemhuman-likeexpressions(表情).“Tolookatapugistoputasmileonyourface,”saidthejudge. ItisbelievedthatpugscamefromChina.TheywereplayfulfriendstoChineseemperorsandtheirfamilies. Inthe16thcentury,pugswenttotheNetherlands(荷兰).Peoplesaythatabravepugsavedaprincethere!So,pugsbecamespecialpetsintheDutchroyalfamily(皇室). Later,pugsbecamepopulararoundtheworld.Theyshowedupinpaintings.SpanishpainterFranciscoGoyalikedtodrawpugs.Theyalsoshowedupinfashion.AnItaliandesignernamedaclothinglineafterhispetpug. Today,peoplestilllovepugs.Theircuteandfunnylookscanbrightenyourday.61.Whatspecialfeaturedopugshave? A.Bluefur. B.Longtails. C.Pointedears. D.Wrinkledfaces.62.Wheredidpugscomefrom? A.TheNetherlands. B.Italy. C.China. D.Spain.63.WhydidpugsbecomespecialintheDutchroyalfamily? A.Theycoulddance. B.Apugsavedaprince. C.Theywereverycheap. D.Theyhatedstrangers.64.What’sthemeaningofthesentence“Tolookatapugistoputasmileonyourface”? A.Ifyousmileatapug,itwilltoo. B.Apugcansmilelikehuman. C.Apugcanmakepeoplefeelhappy. D.Peoplealwayslaughatapug.65.Whatcanparagraphs3to6tell? A.Thehistoryofpugs. B.Artistslovepugs. C.ThestoriesofVito. D.Thelookofapug.第二部分主观题(共40分)五、完成句子(每题2分,共10分)按要求在答题区域内填写恰当单词。66.I’dlikepizzafordinner.(改为一般疑问句) ________________________likepizzafordinner?67.Iplaybadmintontwiceaweek.(对划线部分提问) ________________________doyouplaybadminton?68.Idon’tdrinksoftdrinksevenifIgetthirty.(用he替换主语) He____________drinksoftdrinksevenifhe____________thirty.69.Don’teatinclass.(改为同义句) You________________________inclass.70.我爱跑步是因为可以保持健康。(翻译为英文) Ilikejoggingbecauseit____________me____________.六、词与短语填空(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分) 阅读下面短文,用方框中所给的单词或短语填空,使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。(提示:方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)helps/indanger/counts/dangerous/symbol/lookafter/playfulhelps/indanger/counts/dangerous/symbol/lookafter/playful Iloveelephantsbecausethey’restrongandclever.Theyarealsoa____________(71)ofgoodluckinThailand.They’revery____________(72)andlovetoplayinthewater.They’reverykindtoo.They____________(73)otherelephantswhentheydon’tfeelwell.They’reanimportantpartofThailifeandculture.However,theyare____________(74).Theyliveinforest,butpeoplecutdowntreesandkillthemfortheirivory.Let’ssavetheforestsandnotbuythingsmadeofivory.Everyelephant____________(75).七、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,根据上下文或括号内单词等提示,在答题区域填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。 Lilyisayounggirlandlovesthewater.Sheusedtowatchothersswimminginthepoolandwishedshecoulddoittoo.Onesunnyday,herparentstookhertothepooltolearnhow____________(76)(swim). Atfirst,Lily____________(77)(be)scared.Thewaterlookeddeepandshewasafraidofgoingin.Butherparentsencouragedher____________(78)theswimminginstructor(教练)wasverykind. ____________(79)(slow),withtheinstructor’shelp,Lilystartedtokickherlegsandmoveherarmsinthewater.It____________(80)(feel)strangeatfirst,____________(81)shestartedtofeelmorecomfortable(舒服的).Sheevenputherfaceinthewaterandblewbubbles,justastheinstructor____________(82)(show)her. Aftermany____________(83)(try),Lilytriedtofloat(漂浮)onherown.Finally,afterlotsofpractice,Lilyswamacrossthepoolallby____________(84)(her).Herparentsandtheinstructorcheeredforher.Lilywassohappy. Fromthatdayon,shecouldn’twaittogobacktothepoolandkeep____________(85)(learn).Shelearnedthatshecoulddoanythingwithpractice,evenswim!八、书面表达(共1大题,满分15分) “Healthiswealth(财富).”这句格言告诉我们健康的重要性。没有健康,人们不仅没有实现财富的基础,而且无法享受生活、得到幸福。请根据以下内容提示,用英文从饮食、运动等方面谈谈你保持健康的方式与看法。 内容提示: Howdoyouimproveyoureatinghabits? What’syourfavoriteexercisetokeepfit? Whyishealthylifestyleimportantforus? Somethingmoreaboutit.注意:文中不得透露个人真实信息;词数80词左右;开头已给出,不计入总词数。 Healthiswealth,asthesayinggoes._____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
硚口区2024-2025学年度第二学期期中学业质量检测七年级英语试卷参考答案区教研室提供 2025.4.18一、听力测试(每小题1分,共30分) 1-5:DACFB 6-10:BABCA 11-15:BACBA 1
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