2025年山东省济南市莱芜区中考一模英语试题（原卷版+解析版）

2025年初中学业水平考试英语模拟试题(一)本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。第一部分听力(共四节，满分30分)第一节(共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。1A.Mikehasaguitar.B.Lucyisanartteacher.C.Marylikesswimming.2.A.Haveagreattime!B.Wishyougoodluck!C.CatchyouonMonday.3.A.Allencan’tgocamping.B.I’mnotgoodatscience.C.Samisn’ttallerthanTom.4.A.Areyoustillatschool?B.Dotheygetonwell?C.Isthereaparknearhere?5A.Howdoyougotoschool?B.WheredidKategoyesterday?C.Howiseverythinggoing?第二节(共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。6.Whenwillthetrainleave?A.At6:30.B.At7:30.C.At8:30.7.WhyisJanelatethismorning?A.Shestayeduplate.B.Herclockdidn’tgooff.C.Shehadaheadache.8.WhatwillJackprobablydothisweekend?A.Gocamping.B.Visitafriend.C.Watchafilm.9.WhyisthemangoingtoLondon?A.Toworkthere.B.Tovisitafriend.C.Totakeacitywalk.10.Whowenttothemoviewiththegirl?A.Hersister.B.Herbrother.C.Hercousin.第三节(共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。11.HowwasJulie’sbirthdayparty?A.Boring.B.Noisy.C.Great.12.WhatgiftdidJuliegetfromBen?A.Abook.B.Abag.C.Someflowers.13.WhatisBen’sjob?A.Awriter.B.Apainter.C.Adesigner.14.WheredidBentakethedog?A.Thepetstore.B.Thepethotel.C.Thepethospital.15.WhatdoweknowaboutBen?A.Heiscaring.B.Heisstrict.C.Heiscareless.第四节(共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。16.WhatisBruce?A.Astudent.B.Ateacher.C.Atraveller.17.WhatdoesBrucewanttodowiththeoldbooks?A.Sellthemtobuytoys.B.Givethemtopoorchildren.C.Keepthemintheclass.18.HowdoesBrucewanttomakemoney?A.Bysellingusedbottles.B.Byaskingteachersformoney.C.Bydoingpart-timejobs.19.WhatdoesBrucedotomakehisideascometrue?A.Heonlygivesaspeech.B.Heasksparentsforhelp.C.Heworksreallyhard.20.HowdidBrucefeelwhenhebecametheclassmonitor?A.Hefeltnervous.B.Hefeltexcited.C.Hefeltrelaxed.第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节阅读理解(共20个小题；每小题2分，满分40分)AJoinOurCommunityActionPlan!Inourcountry,thegovernmenthasmadeathree-yearactionplancalled“WeightManagementYear”.Thisprogramaimstohelppeopleunderstandtheimportanceofkeepingahealthyweight.OurcommunitywillorganisehealthyactivitiesfromMay1toMay31,2025.Let’sworktogethertobuildahealthier,happiercommunity!HealthyEatingWorkshopTime:EverySaturday(10:00AM-12:00PM)Place:CommunityCenterContent:Learntocookbalancedmealsandmakehealthysnacks.Price:100yuanforeachpersonTel:67605272FunSportsDayTime:May15(8:30AM-4:00PM)Place:RiversideParkandForestParkActivities:Grouprunning,yoga,basketballmatches,andfamilyrelayraces(接力赛).Attention:Wearsportsclothes;bringawaterbottle.Price:Free★Prizes:·Thefirstprize(one):Asmartwatchworth600yuaneachandamedal.·Thesecondprize(two):Asportsbackpackworth300yuaneachandamedal.·Thethirdprize(five):Amedal.Comeandjoinus.Visithttps://HealthyC.HealthTalkTime:May20(3:00PM-5:00PM)Place:CommunityLibrarySpeaker:Dr.LiHuaTopic:“StayHappy:BeatStressandWorry.”Ticket:FreeEmailHealthTalk@formoreinformation.1.Howlongwillhealthyactivitiesinthecommunitylast?A.Threedays. B.Aweek. C.Amonth. D.Threeyears.2.Wherecanyoulearntocookinahealthyway?A.IntheCommunityLibrary. B.IntheCommunityCenter. C.IntheRiversidePark. D.IntheForestPark.3.HowmuchshouldanadultpayfortheFunSportsDay?A.100yuan. B.300yuan. C.600yuan. D.Free.4.HowcanapersongetmoreinformationabouttheHealthTalk?A.Visitawebsite. B.Sendanemail. C.Makeacall. D.Textaspeaker.5.Whydoesthecommunityholdtheseactivities?A.Forhealth. B.Forprizes. C.Formoney. D.Forsafety.BWhenIwasakid,mymomwouldletmehelphermakepopcornoncoldwinternights.Wewouldgetoutapan(平底锅),someoilandbutter,andwaitforthefirstpopcorntojumpwithanexcitingsound.Then,wewouldshakethepanoverthestove(炉子)tokeepthepopcornfromburning—shake,shake,shake,andpop,pop,pop—untilthepanwasfilledwithdeliciouspopcorn!Momwouldpouritallintoabigbowlandaddsomesaltontop.Later,wewouldallcometothelivingroom.Dadwouldsitinhischair,whilemymom,brothers,andIwouldrelaxonthesofa.Therewasalwaysalotofpopcorntoshare,andmomevenletmeeatthehalf-poppedkernels.ThefunnythingisthatIhavealreadyforgottentheshowswewatched,butIstillrememberthesmellofthepopcorn,thewarmthofthebowl,andthejoyofbeingwithmyfamily.Ifeltsoloved,safeandhappy.Wedidn’thaveabighouse,expensivesnacksormuchmoney,butourloveforeachotherwaseverything.It’sthelittlemomentslikethesethatmattermost.They’remagicaleverydaygiftsandmemoriesthatlastforever.So,remembertoenjoythemomentsandthelovethatcomeswiththem.Theyarewhattrulymakelifebeautiful.6.Whatdidthewriterandhismomdotogetheroncoldwinternights?A.Readsomebooks. B.Playedfunnygames. C.Ateexpensivesnacks. D.Madedeliciouspopcorn.7.Howdidthewriterstopthepopcornfromburning?A.Shookthepanwithit. B.Poureditintoabowl. C.Addedsomesalttoit. D.Pouredhotbutterintoit.8.Whatdotheunderlinedwords“half-poppedkernels”meaninparagraph2?A.Burntpopcornpieces. B.Smallpiecesofsnacks. C.Morebutteronthepopcorn. D.Cornthatdidn’tfullypop.9Whatisthemainideaofthestory?A.Popcornisthebestwintersnack. B.Expensivegiftsareunforgettable.C.Familyloveliesinsimplemoments. D.Bighousesmakefamilieshappy.10.Whereisthetextprobablytakenfrom?A.Asciencemagazine. B.Astorybook. C.Asciencefiction. D.Atravelguide.CHaveyouevervisitedabakery(烘焙坊)forasweettreat?Andhaveyoueverwonderedwhathappenstotheunsoldbread?Lately,thistopichasbroughtawidediscussionontheinternet.Breadhasashortsell-bydate,becauseitisusuallykeptatroomtemperature.“Freshlybakedbreadcanonlybekeptfor24hours,whilepackaged(包装好的)breadlasts3days.”saidabakerymanagerinJiangxiProvince.Tosolvethisproblem,somebakeriessellthenear-expired(临期的)breadatalowerprice.Butotherswouldratherthrowitway.“Ifwestartfurtheringdiscounts,weareafraidthatmanycustomerswilljustwaitforthediscountedbread”,saidabakeryowner,“Thiswillhurtourdaytimesales.”Canbakeriesreducetheproductiontocutdownonwaste?Abakerymanagerexplained,“Ashelffullofbreadcatchestheeye.Thiswillmakepeoplewanttobuymorebread.”Mostbakeriesdon’twanttocutbackonthebreadtypes,either.“Peoplepreferfreshness,soweneedtokeepintroducingnewtypes,”saidLuLiang,abakeryownerinShanxiProvince.Whatcanbakeriesdowithnear-expiredbread?Accordingtoabakingteacher,bakeriescandonateittopeopleinneed.Andtheexpiredbreadcanbesenttorecyclingcompaniesandturnedintofoodforanimals.Inaddition,somebakeriessellnear-expiredbreadthrough“blindboxes”.AtabakeryinShanghai,forexample,thereisablindboxsalefrom8p.m.to9p.m.everyday.Peoplecangetarandomtypeofnear-expiredbreadatalowprice.“It'sgreatbecauseitreducesfoodwaste,”saidonecustomer.“Andtheblindboxalwaysgivesmesomefun!”11.Howdoesthewriterbeginthepassage?A.Byaskingquestions. B.Bystatingfacts. C.Bylistingnumbers. D.Bygivingreasons.12.Howlongcanwekeeppackagedbread?A.8hours. B.24hours. C.3days. D.9days.13.Whatmighthappenifabakeryreducesthekindsofbreadtypes?A.Therewillbelesswasteinbakeries. B.Customerswillloseinterestinbuying.C.Thebakerywillsavemoremoney. D.Thebakerywilldrawnewcustomers.14.Howdocustomersfeelwith“blindboxes”accordingtothetext?A.Familiar. B.Upset. C.Scared. D.Pleased.15.Whatcanbeasuitabletitleforthetext?A.Howtodealwiththeunsoldbread? B.Wheretobuymorefreshbread?C.Whyisithardtosellpackagedbread? D.Whatisneededtosellbreadwell?DBecauseofbusylifestylesandworkstress,moreChinesepeoplearenowturningtoAItoolslikeDeepSeektotalkabouttheirproblems.Theysharefeelingswiththechatbotandreceivewarmadvice.Thispractice,knownas“AItherapy(疗愈),”isbecomingpopularonline.Butcanrobotsreallyreplacehumantherapists?Aroundtheworld,45percentofpeoplewhoneededmentalhealthcarein2024didnotgetitbecauseitwastooexpensiveorthereweren'tenoughdoctors,accordingtoHuntingtonPsychologicalServices.DanielLowd,anassociateprofessorattheUniversityofOregon,believesAIcouldhelpfillthisgap.“IfpeoplecanfindsomesupportandideasbytalkingtoChatGPTorchatbot,thenIthinkthat'swonderful,”LowdtoldNewsweek.LiYong,adoctorattheJiangsuProvinceHospital,agreedwithLowd,sayingthatAImeetspeople’sbasicneedsforemotionalsupporttoapoint.However,AIhasitslimits(限制).Humantherapistsunderstandfeelingsdeeplythroughface-to-facetalksandcreatesuitabletreatmentplans—somethingrobotscan'tfullycopy.Dr.LiuYang,aBeijing-basedpsychologist(心理学家),notes“AnAImightrecognizekeywordslike‘divorce’or‘layoff’,butitcannotfindoutsmallemotionalshiftsintoneorbodylanguage”.Thispointbecomesimportantwhendealingwithaseriesofsituations,wheremisunderstandingscouldbedangerous.Anotherproblemissafety.AImightactlikeatherapistwithoutpropertrainingorrules.Itcannotmatchthelevelofresponsibilitythathumantherapistshave.ExpertsbelievethekeytosafeAItherapyisstrictgovernmentcontrol.Forexample,Wysa,anAImentalhealthapp,followsstrictmedicalstandardsintheUK.Dataprivacyappearsasanotherlargeconcern(担忧).UsersusuallysharepersonaldetailsonAIplatforms,yetfewcompaniesclearlystatehowthisinformationisstoredorused.In2024,amajorChinesementalhealthappfacedcriticismwhenusersfoundtheirchatswerebeinganalyzedforadvertisingalgorithms(算法).AsAIbecomespartofdailylife,findingabalancebetweenitsbenefitsandrisksisimportant.WhileAIoffersquickhelp,humanconnectionremainsirreplaceableforseriousemotionalneeds.16.Whatmakespeopleturnto“AItherapy”?A.AItherapyiswarmer. B.AItoolsarefree. C.Peoplefeelmuchpressure. D.DeepSeekispopular.17.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“it”inparagraph2referto?A.Mentalhealthcare. B.TheAItool. C.Themedicalstandard. D.Thegovernmentcontrol.18.Whatisthemainideaofparagraph3?AAItherapyisnicerandcheaperthanhumantherapists.B.AIrobotswillsoonreplacehumantherapistsinhospitals.C.AIcanperfectlycopyhumantherapists’skillsandmethods.D.AIhaslimitsinunderstandingdeepemotionsandsafetyrisks.19.WhydoesthewritermentiontheWysaapp?A.TogiveanexampleofsafeAIunderrules. B.Toproverobotscandealwithemergencies.C.ToshowAIischeaperthanhumandoctors. D.ToexplainwhyChinaneedsmoretherapists.20.Whatcanweinferfromthepassage?A.AItherapywillcompletelyreplacehumantherapists.B.AIisusefulforbasicsupportbutnotforseriouscases.C.AIcancreatespecializedtreatmentplansforpeople.D.GovernmentcontrolisreallyunnecessaryforAIapps.第二节阅读七选五(共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分)阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。Itcanbereallyembarrassingifsomeoneseesyoutalkingtoyourself.Butdon’tfeelbadaboutit!____21____Youprobablyknowthatthinkingisgoodforthebrain.____22____Talkingtoyourselfloudislikeshowingthisquietinner(内在的)speech.Itcanhelpusdobetterindifferentareaslikeschool,sportsandwork.Whenencouragementcomesfromoneself,itaddstoself-confidence.Forexample,usingphraseslike“Youcandothis!”canmakeabigdifference.____23____Researchersputthemintotwogroups:onegroupthatsaidnothingwhileplaying,andtheotherthattalkedtothemselveswhileplaying.Theyfoundthattheself-talkersshowedmoreconfidenceandplayedbetterthanthoseinthesilentgroup.Talkingtoyourself,especiallyinthethirdperson,canhelpusmanagebadfeelings.“Talkingtoyourselfinthethirdpersonislikegivingyourselfadvice,”saidJasonMoser,aprofessor(教授)fromauniversity.Moseruseshimselfinanexample.____24____Sowhenheisfeelingnervousorafraidduringaflight(航班),hetalkstohimself.“Well,youknow,Jasonknowsairtravelisverysafe.AndJasonhasbeenonthousandsofflights.”Thiscanhelpustoseethingsinadifferentway,especiallywhenwe’refeelingsadorangry.____25____Researcherstestedfourdifferentwaystomemorizethings—readingsilently,readingaloud,listeningtosomeoneelsereadandlisteningtoarecordingofoneselfreading.Theyfoundthatthosewhoreadoutloudrecalledtheinformationthebest.It’sbecausetheinformationwillprobablybecomealong-termmemoryifitissaidoutloud.A.Self-talkalsohelpstoimprovememory.B.Talkingtoyourselfactuallyhasalotofbenefits.C.Improvingmemoryisquitenecessaryforlearning.D.Talkingtoyourselfhelpstocommunicatewithothers.E.Hedoesnotlikeflying,buthehastoflyoftenforhiswork.F.Astudyinvited72tennisplayerstotakepartinsomematches.G.Ithelpsusdothingslikemakingplansandmanagingourfeelings.第三部分语言运用(共三节，满分35分)第一节补全对话(共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。LiMing:Hi,Emma!Howwasyourvacation?Emma:Oh,itwasprettygood.Iwenttothebeach.LiMing:Wow,soundsgreat.____26____Emma:Notyet.ButIheardit’sthemostpopularmoviethisyear.LiMing:Yeah!Iwatchedittwice.NeZhaissobrave.Emma:____27____LiMing:Haha!Helookscutewithhisroundfaceandbigeyes.Emma:WhatdoyouthinkofNeZha2?LiMing:____28____Hisparentsalwayscareforhim.FamilyloveisimportantinChina.Emma:Iagree.What’sthecoolestpartofthemovie?LiMing:____29____Andhisteacherridesafatflyingpig!Emma:It’sfunny.Whynotahorse?LiMing:____30____Chinesestoriescanbefunandteachushowtobestrong.26.A.Areyouhavingagoodtime? B.Canyoubuyaticket?C.HaveyouseenthefilmNeZha2? D.Doyoufinishyourhomework?27.A.WhyishecalledNeZha? B.HowoldisNeZha?C.WhereisNeZhafrom? D.WhatdoesNeZhalooklike?28.A.Idon’tmindcartoons. B.Iwasdeeplymoved.C.Themoviemademesad. D.Itsoundswonderful.29.A.Themagicinthemovieisfantastic. B.It’samovieaboutthefuture.C.Allthefoodtastesreallygood. D.Ihopetobeanactor.30.A.Thereisn’tahorse. B.Hedoesn’tliketools.C.Maybetomakekidslaugh! D.Toprotecttheanimals.第二节完形填空(共15个小题；每小题1分，满分15分)阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。AsLiawalkedhomefromschoolonanOctoberafternoon,shesawsymmetry(对称)allaroundher:inthefacesofpeopleandinthecarsthatwentby.Allthatmonth,Lia’sclasshadbeenstudying____31____thingsofsymmetry.Nowtheirscienceteacher,hadgiventhema____32____:tofindthemostbeautifulexampleofsymmetry.Whatcouldthatbe?Shethoughtandrealizedthatshecouldusethemicroscope(显微镜)tostudysymmetry.Liaspenthours____33____theexaminationofleaves,littlerocks,anddropsofwater.Althoughshewasamazedbywhatshesaw,____34____ofitwastrulybeautiful.Onenight,shestayedinthegardenuntilherfather____35____herinside.“Comein,Lia.It’sgoingtosnow.”Liawassad.Thecoldweatherwouldmean____36____thingstolookfor.Hertaskwasdueinjustafewdays.Liabegantofeel____37____.“Comeinside!”herfathercalledagain.“Bethereinaminute,Dad!”Liacalledback.Justthen,shesawasnowflake(雪花)thathadblownontothe____38____ofhermicroscope.Liahurriedtolookthroughthemicroscope,andtoher____39____,shesawthemostbeautifulexampleofsymmetryshecouldimagined.“Asnowflake!Whydidn’tIthinkofthatbefore?”She_____40_____themicroscopeagainandwassurprisedtofindthattherewasnothing!Thesnowflakehad_____41_____,takingallofitsbeautywithit.“No!Wait!Oh,no!”criedLia.Shehadtotakethesnowflaketoclass,buthow?Itwoulddisappear_____42_____shecouldgetonthebus!Thenshehadanidea.Liarantothehouseandtookhercamera.Withinminutes,sheputitunderthemicroscope.Shecarefully_____43_____anothersnowflakeonthemicroscope’sstageandtookmanywonderfulpictures.Eachsnowflakewasdifferent,symmetrical,and_____44_____beautiful!Fromthenon,thewholeclasscalled_____45_____SnowflakeLia.31.A.expensive B.different C.famous D.handsome32.A.task B.hope C.reason D.map33.A.in B.of C.on D.at34.A.either B.both C.all D.none35.A.called B.visited C.watched D.stopped36.A.most B.fewer C.more D.least37.A.excited B.satisfied C.worried D.moved38.A.shape B.roof C.stage D.window39A.heart B.surprise C.shame D.interest40.A.lookedthrough B.putup C.watchedout D.wentover41.A.discussed B.described C.discovered D.disappeared42.A.after B.before C.until D.when43.A.performed B.knocked C.greeted D.placed44.A.amazingly B.finally C.normally D.nearly45.A.it B.them C.her D.she第三节阅读填空(共10个小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。Ialwaysfeltdifferent.SinceIstartedwearingthickglassesinfifthgrade,someclassmatescalledme“owleyes”.Ihatedmyglassesandoften____46____(hide)theminmypocket.Duringartclass,whentheteacheraskedstudents____47____(draw)self-portraits(自画像),Idrewmyselfwithoutglasses.Oneday,theschoolheldastorytellingcompetition.Ilovedreadingbutneverdaredtospeakinpublic.MybestfriendLucyencouragedme,“Yourvoiceislikewarmhoney!Justbe____48____(you).”Thecompetitiondayarrived.Standingbackstage,myhandsshook.Suddenly,theglassesfoggedupfromnervoussweat.Ialmosttookthemoff,____49____IrememberedIcouldn’tseethewordsclearlywithoutthem.Taking____50____deepbreath,Iwalkedontothestage.AsIbeganreading,somethingmagicalhappened.Theaudiencedisappeared.Ibecamethebraveprincessinthestoryandthispairofglasses____51____(shine)likeacrown(王冠)atthattime.WhenIfinished,allthepeopleinthehallcheeredforme.Afterthecompetition,IaskedLucywhyIdidn’tlooksilly____52____glasses.Lucysmiled,“Yourglassesmakeyou,YOU.Whenyouwearthem,weseeyouevenbecome____53____(confident).”NowIkeepmyglassescleanandbright.Ievenaddcutestarstickersontheframes(镜框).Whennewstudentsaskaboutmyglasses,Isayproudly,“Theyhelpmeseetheworld____54____(clear)andlettheworldseetherealme.”Thisexperienceteachesmethattruebeauty____55____(come)fromself-acceptance.Our“imperfections”areactuallyspecialgiftsthatmakeusunique.第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)第一节情境运用(共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分)根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。56.A:______________________?B:No,mineisinmyschoolbag.57.A:Whatareyougoingtodonextweekend?B:______________________.58.A:______________________?B:Becausehethinksit’sgoodexercise.59.A:______________________?B:Yes,Ihave.IwatcheditonTV.60.A:Hi,Anna.Wheredidyoubuythebag?B:Myauntmadeit.______________________.第二节作文(满分25分)61.齐鲁大地，好客相迎。春日风光正好，“好客山东·齐鲁1号”旅游列车在本月正式开启，途经山东全省16个市，串联山东具有代表性的文化旅游资源，让国内外游客享受一场不一样的快乐之旅。假如你是“好客山东(HospitableShandong)”文化推广志愿者，请你用英语写一篇短文向列车杂志英文版投稿，推荐这条旅游路线。内容包括：1.山东的地理位置或文化特色。2.推荐一到两个代表性的景点。3.简述你对“好客山东”的理解并发出邀请。注意：(1)词数100左右。(2)可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；(3)不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。提示词：QiluNo.1tourismtrain齐鲁1号旅游列车______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

2025年初中学业水平考试英语模拟试题(一)本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。第一部分听力(共四节，满分30分)第一节(共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。1.A.Mikehasaguitar.B.Lucyisanartteacher.C.Marylikesswimming.2.A.Haveagreattime!B.Wishyougoodluck!C.CatchyouonMonday.3.A.Allencan’tgocamping.B.I’mnotgoodatscience.C.Samisn’ttallerthanTom.4.A.Areyoustillatschool?B.Dotheygetonwell?C.Isthereaparknearhere?5.A.Howdoyougotoschool?B.WheredidKategoyesterday?C.Howiseverythinggoing?第二节(共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。6.Whenwillthetrainleave?A.At6:30.B.At7:30.C.At8:30.7.WhyisJanelatethismorning?A.Shestayeduplate.B.Herclockdidn’tgooff.C.Shehadaheadache.8.WhatwillJackprobablydothisweekend?A.Gocamping.B.Visitafriend.C.Watchafilm.9.WhyisthemangoingtoLondon?A.Toworkthere.B.Tovisitafriend.C.Totakeacitywalk.10.Whowenttothemoviewiththegirl?A.Hersister.B.Herbrother.C.Hercousin.第三节(共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。11.HowwasJulie’sbirthdayparty?A.Boring.B.Noisy.C.Great.12.WhatgiftdidJuliegetfromBen?A.Abook.B.Abag.C.Someflowers.13.WhatisBen’sjob?A.Awriter.B.Apainter.C.Adesigner.14.WheredidBentakethedog?A.Thepetstore.B.Thepethotel.C.Thepethospital.15.WhatdoweknowaboutBen?A.Heiscaring.B.Heisstrict.C.Heiscareless.第四节(共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。16.WhatisBruce?A.Astudent.B.Ateacher.C.Atraveller.17.WhatdoesBrucewanttodowiththeoldbooks?A.Sellthemtobuytoys.B.Givethemtopoorchildren.C.Keepthemintheclass.18.HowdoesBrucewanttomakemoney?A.Bysellingusedbottles.B.Byaskingteachersformoney.C.Bydoingpart-timejobs.19.WhatdoesBrucedotomakehisideascometrue?A.Heonlygivesaspeech.B.Heasksparentsforhelp.C.Heworksreallyhard.20.HowdidBrucefeelwhenhebecametheclassmonitor?A.Hefeltnervous.B.Hefeltexcited.C.Hefeltrelaxed.第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节阅读理解(共20个小题；每小题2分，满分40分)AJoinOurCommunityActionPlan!Inourcountry,thegovernmenthasmadeathree-yearactionplancalled“WeightManagementYear”.Thisprogramaimstohelppeopleunderstandtheimportanceofkeepingahealthyweight.OurcommunitywillorganisehealthyactivitiesfromMay1toMay31,2025.Let’sworktogethertobuildahealthier,happiercommunity!HealthyEatingWorkshopTime:EverySaturday(10:00AM-12:00PM)Place:CommunityCenterContent:Learntocookbalancedmealsandmakehealthysnacks.Price:100yuanforeachpersonTel:67605272FunSportsDayTime:May15(8:30AM-4:00PM)Place:RiversideParkandForestParkActivities:Grouprunning,yoga,basketballmatches,andfamilyrelayraces(接力赛).Attention:Wearsportsclothes;bringawaterbottle.Price:Free★Prizes:·Thefirstprize(one):Asmartwatchworth600yuaneachandamedal.·Thesecondprize(two):Asportsbackpackworth300yuaneachandamedal.·Thethirdprize(five):AmedalComeandjoinus.Visithttps://HealthyC.HealthTalkTime:May20(3:00PM-5:00PM)Place:CommunityLibrarySpeaker:Dr.LiHuaTopic:“StayHappy:BeatStressandWorry.”Ticket:FreeEmailHealthTalk@formoreinformation.1.Howlongwillhealthyactivitiesinthecommunitylast?A.Threedays. B.Aweek. C.Amonth. D.Threeyears.2.Wherecanyoulearntocookinahealthyway?A.IntheCommunityLibrary. B.IntheCommunityCenter. C.IntheRiversidePark. D.IntheForestPark.3.HowmuchshouldanadultpayfortheFunSportsDay?A.100yuan. B.300yuan. C.600yuan. D.Free.4.HowcanapersongetmoreinformationabouttheHealthTalk?A.Visitawebsite. B.Sendanemail. C.Makeacall. D.Textaspeaker.5.Whydoesthecommunityholdtheseactivities?A.Forhealth. B.Forprizes. C.Formoney. D.Forsafety.【答案】1.C2.B3.D4.B5.A【解析】【导语】本文是一篇应用文，某社区响应政府“体重管理年”号召，计划于2025年5月开展为期一个月的健康活动，包含健康饮食工作坊、趣味运动日及心理健康讲座。活动旨在通过多元形式提升居民健康意识，倡导健康生活方式，共建快乐社区。【1题详解】推理判断题。根据“OurcommunitywillorganisehealthyactivitiesfromMay1toMay31,2025.”可知，活动举办时间从5月1日至5月31日，持续一个月。故选C。【2题详解】细节理解题。根据“HealthyEatingWorkshop”部分的“Place:CommunityCenter”可知，学习健康烹饪的地点是社区中心。故选B。【3题详解】细节理解题。根据“FunSportsDay”部分的“Price:Free”可知，趣味运动日是免费参与的，不需要买票。故选D。【4题详解】细节理解题。根据“HealthTalk”部分的“EmailHealthTalk@formoreinformation”可知，可以通过发送邮件获取健康讲座的更多信息。故选B。【5题详解】主旨大意题。根据“Thisprogramaimstohelppeopleunderstandtheimportanceofkeepingahealthyweight.”及活动内容（健康饮食、运动、心理讲座）可知，社区举办这些活动的目的是为了居民的健康。故选A。BWhenIwasakid,mymomwouldletmehelphermakepopcornoncoldwinternights.Wewouldgetoutapan(平底锅),someoilandbutter,andwaitforthefirstpopcorntojumpwithanexcitingsound.Then,wewouldshakethepanoverthestove(炉子)tokeepthepopcornfromburning—shake,shake,shake,andpop,pop,pop—untilthepanwasfilledwithdeliciouspopcorn!Momwouldpouritallintoabigbowlandaddsomesaltontop.Later,wewouldallcometothelivingroom.Dadwouldsitinhischair,whilemymom,brothers,andIwouldrelaxonthesofa.Therewasalwaysalotofpopcorntoshare,andmomevenletmeeatthehalf-poppedkernels.ThefunnythingisthatIhavealreadyforgottentheshowswewatched,butIstillrememberthesmellofthepopcorn,thewarmthofthebowl,andthejoyofbeingwithmyfamily.Ifeltsoloved,safeandhappy.Wedidn’thaveabighouse,expensivesnacksormuchmoney,b