江苏省新高考基地学校2024-2025学年高三下学期期初质量监测英语试题（含答案含听力原文无音频）

通州等新高考基地学校2025届高三第二学期期初质量监测英语2025.02.26注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考位号填写在答题卡上。考试时间120分钟，总分2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上相应位置。写在本试卷上无效。3.考试结束后，将答题卡交监考老师。第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.Whatdoesthewomanthinkofherwork?A.Hercompanyisunorganized.B.Hersalaryisn’thighenough.C.Herworkismeaningless.2.Whatisthemanallowedtododuringtheflight?A.Sendpassengersblankets.B.Standincrew’sseatingarea.C.Checkthefrontdoor.3.Whydidthemanlearnaboutphotography?A.Toteachthewomananewskill.B.Tosharethewoman’sinterests.C.Tostartanewcareer.4.Whichpartwillbethesecond?A.Reading. B.Writing. C.Listening.5.Whereisthemannowprobably?A.IntheUK. B.InJapan. C.InAustralia.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。6.Whatwillthewomanprobablydofortheman?A.Helphimwinthecase.B.Helphimlearntofollowthelaw.C.Helpimprovehisbusinesspractice.7.Howdoesthemanprobablyfeelintheend?A.Scared. B.Relieved. C.Stressed.听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。8.Wherearethespeakers?A.Inaparkinglot. B.Onapath. C.Inahospital.9.Howdidtheman’saccidenthappen?A.Heslippedonthemuddytracks.B.Hehitsomeonewhileriding.C.Hisbikewasbroken.10.Whatistheman’smainissue?A.Hecan’tfindhisbike.B.Hecan’tfindhisdog.C.Hehasnomedicalsupplies.听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。11.What’stheprobablerelationshipbetweenthespeakers?A.Co-workers. B.Husbandandwife.C.Shopassistantandcustomer.12.Whatwouldtheman’sbossprobablyavoidhaving?A.Banana. B.Coffee. C.Milk.13.Whatsportdoesthemanenjoywatching?A.Tennis. B.Basketball. C.Baseball.听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。14.Whomightthewomanbe?A.Ateacher. B.Aguide. C.Theman’swife.15.Whatmakesthewomanconcerned?A.Thatthelionsaretooweaktomove.B.Thatthelionshaven’teatenforillness.C.Thatthemalelionmayattackthem.16.Howdoesthemanfeelnow?A.Happy. B.Angry. C.Frightened.17.Whathappensintheend?A.Thelionmovestowardsthespeakers.B.Thelionmovesbackward.C.Thelionstaysquiet.听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。18.Whichcropisgrownthemost?A.Tea. B.Rice. C.Corn.19.Whenwillthefestivalbeheldagain?A.In2022. B.In2026. C.In2027.20.Whatisthespeechmainlyabout?A.LifeinGilan. B.IndustriesinGilan.C.EntertainmentinGilan.第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。ABicycleRental&TourInTheCitySincethebanofelectric-scooterridingonthefootpathinNovember2022,theCityScoothastransitionedfromelectricscooterstobicycles!OurfleetofbicyclesconsistsofFoldableBikes,CityBikes,HybridBikesandKidsMountainBikes!ExperienceSingaporebysimplyrentingourbicyclesforaself-guidedride.Wewillprovideyouwithamap,highlightingscenicroutesandstopswhichyoumustn’tmiss!Alternatively,joinourMarinaBayTourpackageandentrustyourselftoourhand-pickedprofessionalTouristGuides—licensedbySingaporeTourismBoard!Basedonover1,0005-starreviewswith2023TripAdvisorCertificateOfExcellence&2024Travellers’Choice,wecanproudlyconcludethatweofferthebestrentalandtourservicesinSingapore!Wehavetwodifferentconceptstoresforyoutochoosefrom.Selfcollectionandreturnserviceforbeforeandafteroperatinghoursareonlyapplicableatthisstore,HighStreetCentre.Youcannowstartandendyourrideanytimeyouwish.Youcangoforlatenightridingandreturnanytimeyouwantbylockingitbackoutsidethestore.TwoStoresforBicycleRentalEsplanadeStoreHighStreetCentreStoreCall/WhatsApp+6593555881Call/WhatsApp+6598933839Weekday:10amto10pmWeekend/Holiday:9amto10pmLastbikeoutat8:45pmEveryday:10amto7pmYoumaybookonlineforselfcollectionandreturnservice.1Week-$1002Weeks-$90/week3Weeks-$80/week1Month-$70/week1Day-$202Days-$19/day3Days-$18/day4Daysto1Month-$17/day21.What’sthemainserviceoftheCityScoot?A.Freeguidedtour. B.Bicyclerental.C.Saleofroadmaps. D.Licencerenewal.22.TouristsprefertheHighStreetCentremainlybecause________.A.ithasalowerpriceforlong-termrentalB.touristscanenjoy24-hourrentalserviceC.ithasmanychainstoresacrossSingaporeD.touristscanlockbicyclesveryconveniently23.Howmuchmightapersonsaveforonemonth’srentalatEsplanadeStore?A.$230. B.$260. C.$290. D.$320.BThemysteryinnorthwestChina,thegrandgalleryinthedesert,theincomparableart,andextensiveandprofoundculture—everythingaboutDunhuangcouldtakeavisitor’sbreathaway.Allthesehavecharmedgenerationsofpeople,andtheyhavealsobroughtthemtoformanfirmbondwithDunhuang.FanJinshi,whosegivennamemeans“beautifulpoetry”inChinese,isoneofthem.AftergraduatingfromPekingUniversityin1963,Fanhadthechancetoworkinprosperousbigcities.However,shedeterminedlyjoinedtheResearchInstituteonCulturalRelicsofDunhuang(laterrenamedtheDunhuangAcademy),andworkedasaguardianofMogaoGrottoes.Atthetimeofherarrival,itwasnotacomfortableplacetoliveanddidnothaveelectricityorrunningwater.Allshecouldseewasbarrenland.Shenotonlyhadtoadapttotheharshenvironment,butalsohadtoendurethelong-termseparationfromherfamily.ButFan’sdevotiontoarchaeology,protectionandmanagementofgrottoesneverwavered(动摇),andshehasmadeoutstandingcontributionstothecauseof“protecting,studyingandcarryingforward”DunhuangGrottoesthroughherworks.Dunhuangisanoldperson,anextremelyvulnerableoldperson.Ithasalotofillnesses.Ifyouarealittlecareless,itwouldbegone,Fansays.Fanhasdevotedherselftoexploringandresearching,andshehaswrittenvaluablearchaeologicalreports.Andasaconservationist,sheservestoprotecttheancientsitefromerosion,collapsingandover-tourism.InherdozensofyearsofresearchinDunhuangheritageconservation,shehasledateamdedicatedtothepreservationoftheworld’sculturalheritage,activelyengagedininternationalexchangeandcooperationinheritageconservation,introducedadvancedconservationconceptsandtechnologies,andbuilt“DigitalDunhuang”.Sheisknownasthe“daughterofDunhuang”forheroutstandingcontributionstotheprotectionoftheMogaoGrottoes.Thelongershestayedthere,thedeeperherlovehasgrownforDunhuang.Fanhasreceivedthenationalhonorof“OutstandingContributortotheCulturalHeritagePreservation”forhersubstantialcontributiontothepermanentpreservationandsustainableutilizationoftheMogaoGrottoesinDunhuang.AminorplanetwasnamedafterFanJinshiatanamingceremonyinDunhuangtocommemorateFan’sdevotion.24.WhydoestheauthordescribeDunhuang’sharshenvironment?A.Tohighlightthepreservationchallenges.B.Tocontrastwithmodernlivingconditions.C.Toillustratethelackofresourcesavailable.D.Toemphasizetheremotenessofthelocation.25.WhatmotivatedFanJinshi’sdevotiontoDunhuang?A.Personalfameandrecognition.B.Desireforafashionablelifestyle.C.Passionforarchaeologyandculture.D.FamilybackgroundinDunhuangstudies.26.Whatdoesparagraph4mainlytalkabout?A.FanJinshi’sroleininternationalcooperation.B.TherecognitionofFanJinshi’sachievements.C.FanJinshi’sconservationeffortsforDunhuang.D.ThearchitecturalfeatureoftheMogaoGrottoes.27.Whatcanwelearnfromthepassage?A.Failureisthemotherofsuccess. B.Devotionleadstogreatachievements.C.Youthmeanslimitlesspossibilities. D.Whatamanneedsmostisappreciated.CThere’sanongoingjokeinmyhousehold.WhenIwinatcards,itmeansluck.Whenmyhusbandwins,itmeansskill.Buttherearealwayssomequestionsburstingintomymind:isthisalsothecasethatthefilmindustryperceivesfemalefilmdirectors?Isittruethatwhenamaledirectormakesagreatfilm,he’sagreatdirector—butwhenafemaledirectordoesthat,it’sjustdowntoluckora“teameffort”?TherehasbeenmuchcriticismoftheAcademyAwardsin2023.DanielleDeadwylerandViolaDavisarenoticeablyabsentfromBestActressnominations(提名)anddespiteSarahPolley’sWomenTalkingbeingnominatedforBestPicture,therearenowomennominatedforBestDirector.It’snotjusttheOscars.There’salackofrecognitionacrossthefilmindustry.Accordingtoa2016studybyDirectorsUK,thereasonsforthisbiasarecomplexandexistevenwhenthegatekeepersarewomen.Thesamestudyfoundwomendirectorswereconsideredlesscapable.Hiringwomeninthefilmindustryisoftenlast-minuteandrelieson“wordofmouth”,leadingtopoorHRpracticesandnepotism(裙带关系).Evenwhenafilmhasbeenmade,theawardsselectionprocessinvolvesmoreprejudice.However,awardsreallymakeadifference.Theyaren’tjustaboutimprovingchancesintheeyesofinvestors.Womenarealreadybehindmeninself-confidence.Therecognitionofanawardcanmeanthedifferencebetweenstoppingandcontinuing.Luckily,publicfundingagenciesarestartingtoprioritizefilmsbyfemalefilmmakers.However,there’stoomuchpressureontheseagenciestofundfilmsthatturnaprofitratherthanfundingnewvoices.InScandinavia,fundingcommissioners(委员)areonshort-termcontractstoensurethere’sacontinualshiftindecision-makers.ThisissomethingtheUKcouldconsider.28.Howdoestheauthorintroducethetopicofthetext?A.Byexplainingthefact. B.Byraisingthedoubts.C.Byanalyzingthereason. D.Byarguingtheviewpoint.29.WhydidtheAcademyAwardsin2023causeheateddiscussion?A.Theyonlyfocusedoncommercialvalue.B.Theyignoredthequalityofnominatedfilms.C.TherewasalackofanomineeforBestdirector.D.Femalefilmmakersfailedtogetafairjudgment.30.Whatcanweknowaboutthewomengatekeepers?A.Theyareconsideredtobelesscapable.B.Theyrelyonnepotismtowinpromotion.C.Theyalsodiscriminateagainstfemaledirectors.D.Theydecideifwomeninthefilmindustrycontinue.31.Whatdoestheauthorintendtodointhelastparagraph?A.Providepracticesforreference. B.Makecomplaintsaboutfunding.C.Describedifferencesofagencies. D.Acceptchallengesfromfilmmakers.DThefutureofspacefoodcouldbesimpleandstrange.Fordecades,astronautshavereliedmostlyonpre-packagedfoodortheoccasionalgrownvegetablesduringtheirvisitstoouterspace.WithmissionsbeyondEarth’sorbitinsight,aNASA-ledcompetitionishopingtochangeallthatandstartaneweraofsustainablespacefood.Tosolvetheproblemoffeedingastronautsonlong-durationmissions,theUSspaceagencystartedtheDeepSpaceFoodChallengeinJanuary2022,askingcompaniestoproposenovelwaystodevelopsustainablefoodsforfuturemissions.About200companiesentered,whichwerenarroweddownto11teamsinJanuary2023aspartofphase2.OnNovember19,NASAannouncedtheteamsthatwillprogressintothefinalphaseofthecompetition,withsomewinnerstobeannouncedinMarch,2025.Allteamshadtoshowsystemsthatcouldoperateforthreeyearsandfeedacrewoffouronafuturespacemission.Theproposalsdidnotneedtosupplyacrew’sentirediet,buttheydidneedtocreateavarietyofnutritiousfoodsfortheastronauts.Onecompanytookanincrediblyunusualapproachtothetask.AirCompany,basedinNewYork,designedasystemthatcouldusethecarbondioxidebreathedoutbyastronautsinspacetoproducealcohol,whichcanthenbefedtoyeast(酵母）andproduce“somethingthat’ssuitableforeating”.“It’smakingfoodoutoftheair.”saysStaffordSheehan,cofounderandchieftechnologyofficerofAirCompany,“Itsoundslikemagic,butwhenyouseeitactuallyoperating,it’smuchmoresimple.”InterstellarLabinFloridahadadifferentapproach.Itssystem,calledNUCLEUS,isasetofsmallcapsules.Eachisself-contained,withitsowntemperature,wateringsystem,etc.Thatwouldallowdifferentvegetablestobeplantedsothatastronautscaneasilygrowtheirownfoodinspace.WhilethewinningideasfromtheDeepSpaceFoodChallengewon’timmediatelybeusedbyastronauts,theyshowwhatmightbepossibleonfuturemissions.“You’vegottostartyearsinadvancetomakesureyouhavethecapabilityinplacewhenyouneedit,”saysRalphFritsche,seniorprojectmanagerforspacecropproductionatNASA’sKennedySpaceCenterinFlorida.32.WhywastheDeepSpaceFoodChallengelaunched?A.Tofindtastyfoodsforastronauts.B.Tofoundaspacefoodsupplycenter.C.Todevelopanewsourceofspacefood.D.Toattractastronautstofoodexploration.33.Whichmightbetherequirementtobecomethewinningcompany?A.Futurespacemissionslastingthreeyears.B.Entiredietsforlong-lastingspaceresearch.C.Concreteproposalsinvolvingacrewoffour.D.Sustainablesupplyofnutritiousspacefoods.34.Whatdoparagraphs4and5focuson?A.Processofcreatingspacefoods. B.Uniquesystemsofstoringfoods.C.Examplesofspecificspacefoods. D.Prospectsofthesefoodcompanies.35.Whatisthemostsuitabletitleforthetext?A.Astronautsproducemorespacefood B.SpaceexplorersfacealackofnutritionC.Futurespacemissionslastevenlonger D.Newtypesofspacefoodsareontheway第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。HowtocriticizeconstructivelyGivingconstructive,criticalfeedbackisanart.It’sawaytoencouragepositivebehaviorwithoutblamingorattackingthepersonyou’recriticizing.36Youneedtorememberthateveryoneisdifferentandyoushouldcustomizethewayyougivefeedbackbasedonwhatyouknowaboutthepersonyou’retalkingto.Giveconstructivecriticismwhenyouhaveagoodreasontodoso.Beforeyoucriticize,askyourself,“Whatisthepointhere?”37Ifyoudon’thaveaclearobjectiveinmind,youriskoverloadingthepersonwithadditionalinformation,ormakingthemfeellikeyou’reboxingthemin.Youmayhaveaspecificbehavioryouwanttoseechanged.Forexample,yourgoalmaybetogetastudenttostopshoutingoutoverclassmateswhenthey’reexcited.38Whatyousaymatters,buthowyousayitmattersalot,too.Iftheotherpersonfeelslikeyou’recomingfromahealthy,friendlyplace,they’regoingtobemuchmorelikelytopickupwhatyou’reputtingdown.Sokeepyourvolumedown,maintainrelaxedbodylanguage,andtrytomaketheotherpersonfeelrespectedandappreciated.Havetheconversationinprivate.Praiseinpublicandcriticizeinprivateforthebestresults.Nobodylikestohearthattheyaren’tdoingaperfectjob,sohavethisconversationprivatelytoputthepersonyou’recriticizingatease.Youcouldinvitethepersonintoyourofficewithasmileonyourface,orasksomeonetoswingbyduringlunchforaquickchat.39Leadwithsomethingadmirable.Findsomethingappreciativetosayabouttheotherperson.40Leadingwithapositivenotewillputtheotherpersoninamorereceptiveplacebeforeyougettotheheartoftheissue.A.Beconsciousofyourtone.B.Pointouthisfaultbeforepraisinghishardwork.C.Identifywhatyou’rehopingtogetoutofthetalk.D.Ifyoucriticizearudestaff,startbyappreciatinghispassion.E.It’sessentialtomastertheskillstogiveconstructivecriticism.F.Havingacriticisminminddoesn’tmeanitneedstoberespected.G.Yourcriticismismorelikelytobeproductiveifnobodyelseispresent.第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。KristinSchellisthefounderofTheTurquoiseTable,amovementofordinarypeoplewhowanttocreatecommunityrightintheirownfrontyards.Kristinwas41andtriedtoconnectwithhernewneighborsbyhostingstudiesandplaygroups.Butthose42requiredplanningaheadandarrangingschedules.Oneday,Kristin43afewpicnictablesforapartyinherbackyard.Thedeliverydriversetonetabledowninherfrontyard44andKristincouldn’tgetthe45outofherhead.“Aftertheparty,Ipaintedthetableturquoise,”shesays.ThatturquoisetablebecametheplacewhereKristinandherkids46.Theyplayedgames,didcraftsandatesnacks.Kristinsays,“Webecame‘frontyardpeople’.”Neighbors,whowere47witheachother,begantostopbyto48themselvesandsitdownforachat.Kristin49peopletojoinheratthetableforcoffeeoricedtea.“Itwasasimpleandeffectivewaytoslowdownand50withothers,”shesays.Thenneighborsputapicnictableintheirfrontyardtoo.Amovementwas51.Peopleoften52toinviteothersintotheirhomes.Theythinktheirhouseistoomessy,orit’snotbigenough.“Ourperfectionismcancauseusto53thejoyofengagingwithothers,”Kristinsays.Herpicnic54takesawaytheexcuses—andthepressure.Sofar,thousandsofturquoisetableshaveexistedaroundtheworld.TheTurquoiseTablemovementhasbecomeahuge55.41.A.sociableB.persistentC.reliableD.courageous42.A.agreementsB.debatesC.activitiesD.performances43.A.producedB.displayedC.abandonedD.bought44.A.forfreeB.bymistakeC.insurpriseD.withdelight45.A.partyB.angerC.imageD.driver46.A.felloverB.hungoutC.setoffD.calmeddown47.A.unhappyB.uncomfortableC.unpopularD.unfamiliar48.A.introduceB.enjoyC.expressD.advertise49.A.forcedB.employedC.invitedD.allowed50.A.competeB.bargainC.cooperateD.bond51.A.bornB.canceledC.postponedD.changed52.A.promiseB.seekC.hesitateD.decide53.A.dojusticetoB.catchupwithC.makeupforD.missouton54.A.tableB.snackC.shoppingD.game55.A.burdenB.hitC.challengeD.failure第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。MarriottBonvoyrecentlylaunchedits2025TasteofWondersfoodanddrinkmarketingcampaignacrossChina,withafooddocumentary56(title)TasteofWonders,FlavorsofNorthandSouth.DevelopedincooperationwithfamousdirectorChenXiaoqing,thefilmexploresthepeopleandculture57Chinesecuisine,andcentersaroundtheChinesewordxian,58meansbothfreshingredientsanddelicateflavor.Thedocumentaryexplorestheemotionalconnectionspeoplehavewithfood.“Ourancestors59(take)inspirationfromtheharvestsoftheland,lakesandseastocreate60characterxian,”Chensaid.Thewordconsistsoftwoparts,61(literal)meaninggoatandfish.“We62(fight)toprovidefirst-classdiningexperiencestailoredtolocalpalates(嗜好)sofar.Intoday’sdiningscene,thereisagrowing63(emphasize)onfreshnessandseasonality.In2025,TasteofWonderswillspotlightourChineserestaurants,64(encourage)ourdistinctChinesecuisinebrandsandtalented65(chef)toofferguestsvariousdiningexperiences.”第四部分写作(共两节；满分40分)第一节(满分15分)假定你是李华，春节期间你参加了社区举办的“包饺子，献爱心”活动。请你给英国朋友Brown写一封邮件分享这次经历，内容包括：1.活动过程；2.你的收获。注意：1.写作词数应为80左右；2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。DearBrown,I’mwritingtosharewithyouacommunityeventthemed“MakingDumplings,SharingLove”duringtheSpringFestival.Yours,LiHua第二节(满分25分)阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。“Aisha,it’syourturntoreadthesecondparagraph,”MissEmansaidsoftly.Aisha’sheartracedasshestoodup.Herhandsshookassheheldthebook.“One…su…summer,alo…along1909,the…fa…father…”shestammered(结结巴巴地说),strugglingtoreadastheclassburstintolaughter,withtheirgiggles(咯咯笑)fillingtheclassroom.“Enough!”MissEmancalledout,silencingeveryoneintheclassroom,andthenshegentlyaskedAishatoseeherintheofficeafterschool.Embarrassed,Aishawhispered“yes”anddroppedintoherseat.Afterschool,Aishaslowlymadeherwaytothestaffroomandnervouslyknockedonthedoor.MissEmaninvitedherinwithawarmsmileandaskedaboutherreadingstruggles.Aishalookeddownatherhandsandexplainedthatshehaddyslexia(诵读困难)andthatthewordsjumpedaroundwhenshetriedtoread,makingithardforhertofocus.MissEman’sfacesoftenedwithunderstanding.“Aisha,there’snothingtobeashamedof.Beingdifferentjustmeansyoulearninaspecialway.I’llbringsomespecialreadingmaterialtohelpyou.We’llworkonthistogether,okay?”Aishasmiled,feelinghopefulforthefirsttime.ThenextdayMissEmanhandedAishaabagfullofspecialbooksfromareadingcenterdesignedforstudentswithdyslexia.Inthefollowingweeks,Aishapracticedwiththematerials.Initiallydifficult,readingsoonbecamelessscary,andthewordsdidn’tjumparoundasmuch.Afewweekslater,MissEmancalledAishatoherdesk.“Aisha,I’mreallyproudofyourprogress.Wouldyouliketojoinextrareadingclasses?Withalittlemorehelp,Iknowyoucandoevenbetter.”Aisha’seyesbrightened.“I’dloveto,MissEman,”shesaid.MissEmanthencalledAisha’sparentstoexplaintheextrareadingclassesandhowtheywouldhelpAishaimproveherreading.HerparentsrepliedthattheyfullysupportedAisha,aslongasshewaswillingtoworkhard.Seeingthis,Aishawasoverjoyedandshewasgratefulforherparents’supportandMissEman’shelp.注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。Forthenextfewmonths,Aishaattendedtheextrareadingclasses.Aweeklater,Aishawasexcitedtoknowthatshehadscored40outof50inthereadingtest.2025届高三第二学期期初质量监测英语试题参考答案第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)1-5CABCB 6-10ABBAC 11-15BCBBC 16-20CAACA第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)21-23BBA 24-27ACCB 28-32BDAA 32-35CDCD第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)36-40ECAGD第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)41-45ACDBC 46-50BDACD 51-55ACDAB第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)56.titled 57.behind 58.which 50.took 60.the61.literally 62.havefought/havebeenfighting 63.emphasis 64.encouraging 65.chefs第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)第一节(满分15分)DearBrown,I’mwritingtosharewithyouacommunityeventthemed“MakingDumplings,SharingLove”duringtheChineseNewYear.ItwasarewardingexperiencethatIwillcherishforever.Wegatheredtogetherateightinthemorning.Organizedbythecommunitystaff,werolledoutwrappers,preparedfillings,andwrappeddumplings.Afterthedumplingswerecooked,wedistributedthemtotheelderlyandleft-behindchildrenintheneighborhood,bringingthemwarmth,joyandfestiveatmosphere.Throughthisactivity,notonlydidIlearnhowtomakedumplings,butalsounderstoodthemeaningofpassingonlovetothosearoundus.Yours,LiHua第二节(满分25分)Paragraph1:Forthenextfewmonths,Aishaattendedtheextrareadingclasses.MissEmanencouragedhereverystepoftheway,andthespecialbooksmadereadingmucheasierforAisha.Slowly,Aisha’sconfidencegrew.Whenthetimecameforthereadingtest,Aishawasnervous,butsheknewshehadpreparedenough.Asshestartedreadingthepassage,shenoticedsomethingamazing:thewordsdidn’tdanceorjumpanymore.Instead,theystayedstillandclear.Aishasmiledtoherselfasshefinishedthetest.Paragraph2:Aweeklater,Aishawasexcitedtoknowthatshehadscored40outof50inthereadingtest.TearsofjoyfilledAisha’seyesassheracedtoMissEman.Tightlyhuggingher,Aishathankedherforherhelp,sayingshecouldn’thavedoneitwithouther.MissEmansmiledwarmly,hereyesshiningwithpride,andsaiditwasAisha’shardworkanddeterminationthathadbroughtherthisfar.AsAishalookedaroundtheclassroom,shenoticedherclassmateswatchingherwithadmiration.Eventhosewhohadoncelaughedatherwereimpressedbyhersuccess.写作评分说明第一节：应用文写作（满分15分）文章总共分三部分，包括1.你参加了社区举办的“包饺子，献爱心”活动；2.活动过程；3.你的收获。如三个部分都涵盖，文章段落分明，书写清楚，字数达到要求，表达无太多错误，得分则应在10分以上。一、评分原则1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。3.词数少于60或多于100的，酌情扣分。4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。6.如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。二、各档次的给分范围和要求第五档(13-15分)完全完成了试题规定的任务。完全达到了预期的写作目的。1.覆盖所有内容要点。2.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。3.语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。4.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。第四档(10-12分)完成了试题规定的任务。达到了预期的写作目的。1.虽漏掉一、二个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。2.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。3.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。4.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。第三档(7-9分)基本完成了试题规定的任务。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。1.虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。2.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。3.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。4.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。第二档(4-6分)未恰当完成试题规定的任务。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。1.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。2.语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。3.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。4.较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。第一档(1-3分)未完成试题规定的任务。信息未能传达给读者。1.明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。2.语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。3.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。4.缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。不得分：（0分）未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。第二节读后续写（满分25分）评分说明1.评分原则：本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。给分公平、公正；宽严并济，不能过严或过松；得分有理，扣分有据。2.评分标准：立意积极、情节合理、语言水平及风格（语言风格与前文一致）、书写美观。三个逻辑一致原则：续写部分与所给短文之间的逻辑；续写两段内容之间的逻辑；续写部分与所给开头语之间的逻辑。3.评分程序:阅读第1遍：根据续写总体情节及重点内容描写，初步确定所属档次。阅读第2遍：根据写作语言（修辞、句式、词汇等），确定或调整档次。阅读第3遍：看词数（少于130个，从总分中扣2分）；看书写（书写及卷面较差的建议降为三档或三档以下）。三、各档次的给分范围和要求档次描述第五档（21—25）1.与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。2.内容丰富。3.所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。4.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。第四档（16—20）1.与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。2.内容比较丰富。3.所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。4.比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。第三档（11—15）1.与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。2.写出了若干有关内容。3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。4.应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。第二档（6—10）1.与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。2.写出了一些有关内容。3.语法结构单调，词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达。4.较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。第一档（1—5）1.与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。2.产出内容较少。3.语法结构单调，词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了