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2024—2025学年(下)安徽高一3月调研考试贴在答题卡上的指定位置。2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。A.&19.15.B.&9.18.C.&9.15.答案是C。A.Askingforhelp.B.Lookingforaprofessor.C.Atte3.Howistheman'sinventi4.WhatdoesthewomanthinkofthequesA.Strange.B.Simple.A.Tea.B.Acup.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。英语试题第1页(共8页)免费高中试卷7.Wheredoestheconversationprobablytakeplace?听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。A.TheyvisitedtheirnB.Theyattendedabirthdaypa听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。A.Ahost.B.Acook.A.Hermother.B.Herfriend.C.HergrandmA.Tostartablog.A.Makeherselfpopular.B.Shareherfamilylife.C.HelpMomscookeasily.听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。A.Instructionsontheship.B.PlacA.Nearthecaptain'soffice.B.Nextto20.Whichofthefollowingisthespeaker'swarniA.Don'tgetintothecars.B.Trynottowalkaround.第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)Ad英语试题第2页(共8页)managedandhowyou'llprotectpeoplefromfireifonebrstepstoreducetheriskscausedhaveallofthisinformationrecordedinoneplace.The·Enoughfireescaperoutes(逃生路线)andwaysofescape,allowingpeopletofindtheirway·Suitablefireextinguishers(灭火器),makingsurethattherighttypeofextinguisherisfixedtheyknowwhattodoincaseofemergency.ArangeofonlinewiththenecessaryfiresafetyknowC.ItmakesiteasytodealwA.Planfireescaperoutes.B.ImprovetheworBbyinternationalauthorbasedauthorofeightchildren'sbtropical(热带的)stormsandcoffee!In2015shepublished(出版)JackandJillatBukitTimahHill,herfirstchildren'sbookwithJimenezco-authoredSherlockSam,astoryabouttheSingapore'sgreatestkiddetectcountry'slandmarkssuchasChangiAirport,theMassRapidTransits(MRT).“Researchhasshownthatstoriesrelatedtotraditionalculturehelpkidsreadbetter.ForWhenmyreadersinAsiadiscusitsthemes,theyconnectthesetotheifamilyhistories,"saysLee.Dr.RudineSimsBishop,anex英语试题第3页(共8页)singapore'sNationalArtsCouncil(NAC)encouragesautWherelocalwriterscangainrecognitionandpublishingdeals.InfacNAC'sBeyondWordscontest.“WinningthatcontestallowedmetopubishmyfirstchPicucbook,LinleCloudWansSnow,"Leeshares.Thelocalpublishes,bookstoresandwriters,ispromoingSingaReadourWorldmovement.Thismovementattastageplaysbasedontitlesand24.HowdoesLee'sJackandJillatBukitTimahHilldifferfromherpreviousones?C.Itisherfirstchildren'spicturebook.D.Itispopularwithparentsan26.What'sthebenefitofbooksabouttradA.TheyarecheapertoD.Award-winningSingapC疾的)people.Theanimalsarebrtrainedtoprovidecomforttodisabledchildren,scompleteatleasttwoyearsochildrenandadultswithspecialhealthneeds.CaregiverssaythehorsestreatmentthatoffersvaluablesocialinteractionButtheleaderoftheGreekorgandifficultyinrecentyears.Theorganiperformsmostofthegroup'sdutiesherself.Karagiannialsoprovidesmoneyforthegroupandcaresfortheninetinyhorses,mostlybyherself.Karagiannilearnedaboutthe"“IwastouchedKaragiannicreatedherGreekgroupin2014.Sh英语试题第4页(共8页)hasnotbeensuccessA.Itisshortofmoney.B.ItisiA.Anorganization'sactivitiesC.Herdreamofkeepinghorses.D.Herhopeofmakingfulluseofherland.A.Shehasspreadthebenefitsofminihorses.31.WhichofthefollowingcaDAssistive(辅助的)technologycontainsspecialequipmentandcomputersoftwarethatismeantThelatestassistivetechnologyisbeingpoweredbyartificialintelligence(AI),whichmihelpmanystudentswhohavedifficultyinspeaking,reading,writing,andworkinAlthoughmanyschoolsarestrugglingwithhowandwheretouseAreadingmaterials,oreventranslatetheworksofWilcomputercanreadmaterialsaloudforstudentswhohavmore,thosevoicesproducehasalearningdisability.Sincethen,hehasbeenuPaulSanftisthedirectorofatechnologytoolsandborrowdevices(设备).Heknowssomepeoplewillusethetechnologytodotheworktheyshouldbedoingbythemselves.“That'salwaysgoingtohappen,"SanfIdon'tthinkthat'sthebiggestconcernforpeoplewithdisabilities,whoarejsomethingthattheyA.ItmayleaveteachinguselesC.ItmaymakestudentslazA.HeisagainsttheuseofAI.34.WhatdoestheunderliA.Cheating.B.Stressful.C.Exciting.D.Convenient.35.WhatdoesSanftthinkofassistive第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。Asthenewyearbegins,somepeopleseeanopportunityforchcanbeagoodtimetothinkaboutself-improItisdificulttomakebigchanges.Behaviosmallerones.Forexample,ifyourgoalistoimproveyourhealth,youcochanges.Forsomemeals,youcouldtradeunhealthyfoofor10minuteseachday.YoucBerealisticaboutyourplans.It'squitedisco38Itmightbemorehelpfult whenitfeelsimpossibletokeepyourplan,andyouwillwanttogiveup.AgreatplanmightbThelastpieceofadvicemightbethemostimportant.IfJanuary1stfeelmakeplansconnectedtothecalendaryear.40SpringisthesA.Don'tbetoohardonyourself.E.WinterisusuallyatimeofrestformuchofthenaturG.Expertsalsosuggestusingtechnologytohelpyoukeepyourplans.第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)quickthinkingandremarkableactions41thathis英语试题第7页(共8页)sittinginarockingchair.Sensingthamindeddogjumpedintoaction.Despiteneverhavingbeentaughttooperatedoors,Kai44toopenthedoor,makehiswayoutside,andwarntheneighborhoodwithloudbarks(吠叫).Kai'sloudbarksgotthe45ofconcernedneighbors,oneofwhom46calledtheSanAngeloPoliceDepartment.Whenofficersarrivedattheprovedhewas48,allowingthemtoenterthehome.Isevereandlife-threateningillnesscausedbyaninfection(感染).HespenttendaysintheIntensiveCareUnit(ICU).immediateaction,thegrandfathermightnothavebe诚)andnaturalactions.41.A.stressedB.explainedC.ensured42.A.turnedoverB.passedout43.A.wrongB.acceptableC.unnecessa44.A.hopedB.returnedC.wait45.A.agreementB.attentionC.trust46.A.immediatelyB.skillfully47.A.imaginedB.copied48.A.angryB.shyC.friendly49.A.discoveredB.rememberedC.recordedD.expected50.A.encouragementB.treatm51.A.introducedB.walked52.A.provedB.noticed53.A.patientB.active54.A.asusual55.A.partnerB.relati第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)EvenastemperatureskeptdroppinginChina'snortheastern“icecity"ofHarbiamongagroupofswimmerswhoenjoyedjumpingintofreezingwaters.dailythroughouttheycentimeter-thickcoverofice.Thentheyremovedtheicepieces,tookoffallsuits58gotpreparedtoenter.Onebyone,theyjumpedintoafreOneoftheseswimmerswasChenkilometersfurthersouth.ShejumpedintotheriverChensaidthewinterwatersintheplace61第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)第一节(满分15分)假定你是李华,你校春季运动会刚刚结束,校报英文专栏现向全校师生征集摄影作品,希望借此机会让更多人都能成为校园文化的记录者和传播者。请你写一封邮件投稿,内容包括:2.说明理由。注意:1.写作词数应为80个左右;2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。第二节(满分25分)Lastnight,IwastryingtogotoastoretobuyacoupleAtfirstthreedifferentpeopleaskedusifwoff.Itwasliketheyjustwantedtoknowifweneededhelpbutnotactuallyhelp.Finally,amancallinghimselfDavidstoppedhiscarandhelpeduspboughtwhatweneeded.Afterthat,wewenttothecheckoutstogether,andIpaidthebillforheofferedtodriveushome.Soon,wearrivedatourhouse.注意:1.续写词数应为150个左右;2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 英语试题第8页(共8页)免费高中试卷2024—2025学年(下)安徽高一3月调研考试号听力原文:Iknowit'sthedaybeforethetest,butIreallyneedyourhelp.Myprofessorisbustw:TheactivitywassupposedtostartatM:HewouldhavearivedontiText4W:Icouldn'tfeelbetteraboutit.Noneofthequestionsarebeyondme.M:Whatdoyouthinkofmynewpainting?I'vejustfinishedit.W:Oh,yes,Isee.Well,it'snotquitemycupoftea.Weallhavedifferenttastes,doW:Wouldyouliketojoinusforthepicnictomorrow?M:I'dloveto,butI'llhavetomeetmyfriM:MuchasI'dliketo,I'vebookedupalreadyW:Whatapity!Youcan'tjoinuM:Lucy,whatdidyoudothismorninW:Heisonlyfiveyearsold.It'sM:Butashismother,it'syourdutytoplanhisM:Daisy,youknowMomandDadhadM:No,thistimetheywerearguparty.M:Youforgotit'swhenweareshW:Sure,butIhavefoundawaytW:Simple.OurnewneighborhaspromisedthatifIM:Hello,welcometoourprogramheretotalktousaboutherfoodblog.ThankM:Wonderful.So,youhavejustreceivedanawardforhavingoneofwhenyoustartedkeepingablog,andwhyyounameditSimple,Fast,andHew:Foryears,IworkedasarepoM:MayIhaveyourattentionOurself-servicerestaurantonB-Arbesidetherestaurant.TheteahouseonC-AreaandthegiftshopwhichisjustneartYouarerespecfullyremindedthatndangerous.Youwillbetoldwhentorejoinyourcar(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)(共20小题;每小题2.5分,满分50分)21—25CDDAC26—30BBAAB31—35DCB(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)41—45CBADB46—50ADCAB51(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)写作第一节(满分15分)is“Victory'sHug.”Ichosethisphotobecauseitcapturesanimpressivemomentofsportsmanshipandthejoyofachtwoclassmates,onehuggingtheotherincelebrationafterarace,withtearsofjoyandtirednessimagenotonlyshowssportingaschoolcommunity.Mostimportantly,itservesasareminderofthehardwThankyouforthisopport评分原则1.本题总分为15分,按5个档次给分。2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。3.词数少于60的,从总分中减去2分。4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。6.如书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。7.内容要点可用不同方式表达,对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。【各档次的给分范围和要求】第五档:(13—15分)1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。2.覆盖所有内容要点。3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。4.语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。5.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。3 3第四档:(10—12分)1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。2.虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。6.达到了预期的写作目的。第三档:(7—9分)1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。2.虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。6.整体而言,基本达到了预期
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