陕西省榆林市2022-2023学年高一下学期7月期末考试英语试题（Word版含答案无听力音频有听力原文）

第第页陕西省榆林市2022-2023学年高一下学期7月期末考试英语试题（Word版含答案，无听力音频有听力原文）榆林市2022-2023学年高一下学期7月期末考试

英语试题

注意事项：

1.本试卷共10页,全卷满分150分,答题时间为120分钟；

2.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名和准考证号填写在答题卡上。

3.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。

4.考试结束后,监考员将答题卡按顺序收回,装袋整理；试题不回收。

第一部分：听力(共两节,满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完

每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例：Howmuchistheshirt

A.19.15.B.9.18.C.9.15.

答案是C。

1.Whydoesthewomanfeelsad

A.Herholidayiscanceled.B.She'llleavethetown.C.Theweatherisn'tsunny.

2.Whatwillthewomandofortheman

A.Updateonlinenews.

B.Keeptheclassesinorder.

C.Makeupforhismissedlessons.

3.Wherewillthemansit

A.Behindthewoman.B.Nexttothewoman.C.Nexttothewoman'sfriend.

4.HowdidAnnasolveherproblem

A.Shelentsomebookstoothers.

B.Sheleftsometextbooksathome.

C.Sheputherbooksinasuitcase.

5.WhendidSueleavehome

A.At4:30.B.At5:00.C.At5:15.

第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟；听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6.Whatdoesthemanlikedoing

A.Helikesgoingshopping.B.Helikesmakingthings.C.Helikesmakingfriends.

7.Howmuchdidthemansave

A.$50.B.$100.C.$150.

听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。

8.WhatisJoshfondof

A.Pianoandrockmusic.B.Rockandpopmusic.C.Popmusicandviolin.

9.WhereisHenryfrom

A.Australia.B.Africa.C.America.

听第8段材料,回答第10至13题。

10.Wheredoestheconversationhappen

A.Onthephone.B.InMissLi'shome.C.Inanoffice.

11.HowdoesTomfeelatfirst

A.Worried.B.Excited.C.Tired.

12.WhatdoesMissLiadviseTomtodo

A.Correctthemistakes.B.Talkwithhisparents.C.Bemorecarefulnexttime.

13.Whatarethespeakersmainlytalkingabout

A.Anexam.B.Astudent.C.Asong.

听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。

14.WhydoesAndrewsuggestSandy'sRestaurant

A.Ithasgoodfood.B.It'snearhishome.C.Ithaslargeoutdoorspace.

15.Whatdoesthewomanpromisetodo

A.Holdabirthdayparty,

B.Writealistofinvitations,

C.Askforherparents'permission.

16.Howlongwillthepartylast

A.Onehour,B.Threehours,C.Fivehours.

17.WhatwillAndrewdothisafternoon

A.Sendtheinvitations.B.Makealistofsongs.C.Getsomedrinks.

听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。

18.Whatpercentageoffreshwaterresourceshavehumansalreadyused

A.45%。B.54%,C.70%,

19.WhatisthegoalofthecampaignorganizedbytheUnitedNations

A.Totransportfreshwatertosomepartsoftheworld.

B.Todevelopmorewaterrecyclingsystemsinpoorcountries.

C.Togetmorepeopletousewaterinenvironmental-friendlyways.

20.Whatisthepassagemainlyabout

A.Howmuchwaterwasused.

B.Waysofrecyclingfreshwater.

C.Concernsaboutwaterissues.

第二部分：阅读(共两节,满分50分)

第一节(共15小题,每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)

阅读下列四篇短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

FamousFoodFestivalsAroundtheWorld

Foodfestivalsareheldallaroundtheworldeveryyear,andpeoplefromdifferentpartscometothesefestivalsinlargenumberstosatisfytheirtastebuds(味蕾).

TheGalwayInternationalOyster(牡蛎)andSeafoodFestival

Galway,Ireland

September26toSeptember29,2023

Thisistheworld'slongestrunningoysterfestival,firstappearingin1954.Apartfromtheexcellentseafoodthatisserved,thefestivalalsofeaturessomeexcitingeventssuchasoyster-eatingcontests,livemusic,tastingparties,etc.

TheInternationalMangoFestival

NewDelhi,India

June30toJuly2,2023

Thisfestivalisacelebrationofeverythingaboutmangoes.Itfeaturesdifferentkindsofmangoesandvariousfooditemsthataremadefromthem.Thefestivalalsoholdsanumberofspecialeventssuchasmango-eatingcompetitions,mango-tastingevents,quizcompetitions,andplentyoftraditionalandfolkperformances.

TheGarlic(大蒜)Festival

TheIsleofWight,England

August17toAugust18,2023

ThisisoneofthelargesteventsthattheIsleofWighthostseachyear,anditshowsrecipesmadefromgarlic.Somefoodsmadeoutofgarlicandgarlicbeerareavailablethere.Thefestivalalsofeatureslivemusicandacountryfair.

TheCraveSydneyInternationalFoodFestival

Sydney,Australia

October1toOctober31,2023

ThisfestivalattractsanumberoffamousinternationalchefseachyearasvisitorstoexperiencethebestofAustralianfood.Fromfinediningatfamousrestaurantstostreetfoodtocookingclasses,thiseventhasalotinstoreforavisitor.

21.Whereshouldyougoifyouwanttoenjoymangoes

A.Galway.B.Sydney.C.TheIsleofWight.D.NewDelhi.

22.WhichofthefollowingisTRUEabouttheGarlicFestival

A.Itlastsforaboutamonth.

B.It'sthelargesteventinEngland.

C.Visitorscanenjoyspecialgarlicbeer.

D.Itonlyfeatureslivemusic.

23.Achefisadvisedtotakepartin__________accordingtothepassage.

A.theGarlicFestival

B.theCraveSydneyInternationalFoodFestival

C.theInternationalMangoFestival

D.theGalwayInternationalOysterandSeafoodFestival

B

FourschoolsfromBeijingwereinHulltoputonashow.

Theschools,allfromtheFengtaiDistrictinBeijing,haveclosetiestothecity.GroupsofstudentsfromBeijingandHullregularlyvisiteachotheraspartofaculturalandeducationalexchangeprogramme.

Today'sspecialperformanceatHullCityHallincludedvariousformsoftraditionalChinesemusic,danceandacrobatics(杂技).

LewisAnderson,26,startedlearningChineseattheageof13andactsasatranslatorandorganiserwhentheChinesestudentsvisittheUK.HealsocurrentlystudiesatauniversityinChina.

Hesaid,"Culturalexchangesarereallyimportantbecausechildrenstarttoappreciateeverythinginlife.Theystarttolearnthatthereisn'tonlytheirviewonthingsandtheystarttolookatotherculturesandappreciatetheirhistoryandbeauty.Forexample,whenHullstudentsvisitChina,theymightvisittheGreatWallandenjoytraditionaldancingandopera,andthentheycomehomeandthink'Whatdowehavethatistheequivalent(相等的东西)ofthat'andtheylookatallthedifferentthingsthatwehaveanditstartstoopentheirminds."

TheChinesestudentsareona12-dayvisittotheUK,visitingeightdifferentcities,includingfourdaysinHull.AspartoftheirvisittoHull,theywereinvitedtovisitvariousmuseums,galleriesandtouristsitesinthecity.

Lewissaid,"ThechildrenloveexploringHullbecauseit'srichinhistoryandeverywhereyoulookit'sold,beautifulandattractive."

AtHullCityHalltheChinesestudentsperformedatraditionalPekingOpera,whichcombinesmusic,vocalperformance,danceandacrobatics.Theperformanceisfamousforfeaturingfantasticcostumesanddazzlingmake-up.

24.WhatdidLewisthinkofculturalexchanges

A.Theybenefitstudentsintheirdevelopment.

B.Theyshouldgetmorepublicattention.

C.TheyinspiremorechildrentostudyinChina.

D.Theybringtraditiontolife.

25.Whichofthefollowingbestdescribesthestudents'visittoHull

A.Itputthemontheroadtoexplorethenature.

B.Itwasamonth-longtour.

C.Itchangedtheirattitudestothecostumes.

D.Itwasajourneyintohistory.

26.WhatdidthestudentsdoatHullCityHall

A.TheyonlytoldChinesestoriestothelocals.

B.TheyperformedPekingOpera.

C.TheytaughtthelocalsPekingOpera.

D.Theyintroducedtheirschoolstothelocals.

27.Whatisthetext

A.Adiary.B.Aplayreview.C.Anewsreport.D.Aschoolnotice.

C

OnMarch22,2023,thejournalNatureEcology&Evolutionpublishedanewmapofundiscoveredspecies.ThisneweffortisofgreatimportanceforWalterJetz,astudyco-authorandprofessoratYaleUniversity,US."Atthecurrentpaceofglobalenvironmentalchange,thereisnodoubtthatmanyspecieswilldieoutbeforewehaveeverlearnedabouttheirexistenceandhadthechancetoconsidertheirfate,"Jetzsaid.

Lessthanadecadeago,Yaleresearchersmappedouttheworld'slife.NowYaleresearchershavelaunchedamoreambitiousproject—creatingamapwherelifehasyettobediscovered,whosegoalistohelpsupportbiodiversity(生物多样性)discoveryandpreservationacrosstheglobe.Accordingtotheresearchers,"Conservativeestimatessuggestonly13to18percentofalllivingspecieshavebeenidentified,althoughthisnumbercouldbeaslowas1.5percent."Intherapidlychangingglobalenvironment,researchersareracingagainsttimetodiscovertheremainingspecies.

"FindingthemissingpiecesoftheEarth'sbiodiversitypuzzleisthereforecrucialtoimprovebiodiversityconservationworldwide,"explainedtheleadauthorMarioMoura,abiologistattheFederalUniversityofParaibainBrazil.Themapofundiscoveredlifeisbasedonamodelestimatingwhereunknownspecieslikelyexisttoday,basedonenvironmental,biologicalandsociologicalfactors.Themostundiscoveredvertebrates(脊椎动物)—potentially25percentofallfuturediscoveries—areexpectedtoliveinBrazil,Colombia,MadagascarandIndonesia.Tropicalforestsinthesecountriesneedprotectionandwemuststopdeforestation(滥砍滥伐)ratestodiscoverourbiodiversity.

"Itisafascinatingprojectthatallowsustobetterknowbiodiversitypatternsontheplanet,"Mourasaid."Wehopetomotivatecitizenscientistsandbiodiversityenthusiastsabouttheimportanceofspeciesdiscoveryandignite(点燃)discussionsandagreementsfromthoseresponsiblefordecision-makingandconservationplanning

28.Whyisthenewmapsoimportant

A.Itishelpfulforustoprotecttheair.

B.Itwillpreventmostspeciesdyingout.

C.Ithelpsimprovebiodiversityconservationonlyinsomecountries

D.Ithelpssupportbiodiversitydiscoveryandpreservationacrosstheglobe.

29.WhatmayYaleresearchersagreewith

A.Only23percentofalllivingspecieshavebeenidentified

B.Itisaraceagainsttimetodiscovertheremainingspecies

C.Manyspecieswillgoextinctafterwehaveeverlearnedaboutthem

D.Thenewmapisbasedonamodelestimatingwheretheworld'splantsexistnow

30.Whatdoestheunderlinedword"crucial"meaninParagraph3

A.Significant.B.UselessC.ScaryD.Closing

31.Whatmaybetalkedaboutinthefollowingparagraph

A.Theimportanceofspeciesdiscovery

B.Theimpactofdeforestationonundiscoveredspecies

C.Themorespecificthingswecandotohelpspeciesdiscovery

D.ThedevelopmentofNatureEcology&Evolution

D

TheartificialintelligencetoolChatGPTcanoffereverythingfromanswerstobasicgeneralknowledgequestions,towritingessaysandpoems.AskChatGPTtowriteaboutthehistoryoftheFrenchRevolutionorBattlesofHastings,anditwillprovideaperfectessayinlessthanasecond.It'ssuchapowerfultoolopenlyaccessibletoanystudentforfree.However,AI-basedplagiarism(抄袭)orsocalled“AIgiarism”isfasttakingoffacrossstudentpopulationsinternationally,ringingalarmbellsinschoolsanduniversitiesaroundtheworld

ThedevelopersOpenAIhavesincedecidedtopreventthemisuseofitstechnology.Thecompanyisdevelopingasystem,watermarks,foridentifyingthosewhocheatbysubmittingessayswrittenbyChatGPT.Byusingthesystemwhichchangescertainworksintoarecognizablepattern,themachinewrittentextcouldbeidentifiedbyanyonelookingforthesigns.Thesechangeswouldnotbenoticeabletothereader.Theresearcherssaythatbysettingupthiskindofsecuritysystem,itcouldpreventthetechnologyfrombeingmisusedforwhateverreason.Suchmeasureswillalsopreventanoverdependenceonthetool,whichstillhasalongwaytogobeforeimprovingitsaccuracy,duetothefactthatitcollectstheinformationfromallovertheinternet.TheCEOofOpenAI,SamAltman,saidinastatementthatitwouldbeamistaketodependonitforanythingimportantatthisstage.

Schoolsalsointurnhavetriedtotakemattersintotheirownhands,withmanyacrossEuropeandtheUSupdatingtheirpoliciestowarnofpunishmentsforthosewhoarecaughtusingtheprogramimproperly.

OtherschoolshavelimitedinternetnetworkaccesstoChatGPToncampus.ExaminershavethesensetoidentifyessayswrittenbyChatGPTbyalackofemotionorpersonalexperiencesinthem.Thisabilityisahumanadvantage—AIwillstruggletocopy.

32.WhydoestheauthormentionFrenchRevolutionandBattlesofHastings

A.Toexplainwhattheyare.B.TointroducethehistoryofFrance.

C.ToshowthepowerofChatGPT.D.Tomakeacomparisonbetweenthem.

33.WhatcanwelearnaboutthesystemmentionedinParagraph2

A.ItwillmakeChatGPThelplessforpeople.

B.ItwillprobablypreventanoverdependenceonChatGPT.

C.Thereadersareworriedaboutthesystem'sfuture.

D.IthassuccessfullyrecognizedessayswrittenbyChatGPT.

34.WhatcanweknowaboutAIaccordingtothelastparagraph

A.AIisabletomatchhumans.

B.AIhasnoability.

C.AIhasanadvantageoverhumans.

D.ThereissomethingthatAIcan'tcopyfromhumans.

35.Whatcanbethebesttitleforthepassage

A.ActionsAgainsttheMisuseofChatGPT

B.ChatGPTIsForbidden

C.AlltheSystemsofOpenAI

D.ChatGPT—APowerfulTool

第二节(共5小题,每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Manypeoplefindithardtogetexcitedaboutlearningnewvocabularybecausetheybelieveitisonlyaboutrotememorization(死记硬背).36._____________Whetheryou'relearninganewlanguageorimprovingyourcurrentone,thereareavarietyoftoolsyoucanusetohelpyoureallylearn,notjustmemorizenewwords.

★Integrate(融入)thenewwordsintoyourenvironment.

Hanglargeblankpiecesofpaperinplacesyoufrequent,likethebathroomorkitchen.Addnewwordsandtheirmeaningstothehangingpaperasyouseethem.37.___________Youcanalsodrawasmallpictureshowingthemeaningofthewordbesideit.

★38.________________

Youcanwritenewwordsintosentencesrelatedtoyourownlife.Forexample,ifyouwanttolearntousetheword"azure",abrightbluecolor,writeitintoseveralsentencesthatrelatetoyourcurrentsituation:"Mynewcupisabeautifulazurecolor."

★Turnlearningintoaneducationalgame.

Themorefunyoucanmakeyourvocabularylearningtime,themorelikelyyouaretodoit.Thereareanumberoffreevocabulary-learninggamesonline.39._______________

★Revisethewords.

40._____________.Soevenifyou'vegotthosewordsremembered,youstillneedareview.Afterrevisingthemacoupleoftimes,makesureyouareconfidentwiththeiruse.

A.Makethenewwordspartofyourlife.

B.Thatwayyou'llfindyourselffrequentlynoticingthem.

C.Chooseabookthatyouwouldliketoread.

D.Makethemostoftheseresourcesandyouwillmakeunexpectedprogress.

E.Noteveryonehasagreatmemory.

F.Luckily,that'sfarfromthecase.

G.Youwanttohavesomewheretolookupthemeaningoftheword.

第三部分：语言运用(共两节,满分30分)

第一节完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

WhenIwasinmycollege,Ihaveafullclassscheduleandapart-timejob.I41hadtimeforexercise.

What'sworse,Iatemuchfastfood.Undoubtedly,Iwas42.

Aftergraduation,Idecidedtogotothe43.Togetherwithafriend,Ibeganto44regularly.I

wasverysatisfied.Wewenttothegymeveryday.Myfriend,however,became45.Oneday,hesuggestedthatwetakeupasport.

Iwasnot46,soIdidn'twanttotakeupasport.Andnoonewasgoingtochangemymind.However,afterafewweeks,Isteppedontoanoutdoorracquetball(壁球)courtunwillingly.Ihittheball,sendingitflyingineverydirectionexceptforthedirectionthatIhad47.

ButasIwasbeginningtofeelcomfortable,my48suggestedweplaytennisinstead.TennisIcan'tplaytennis!Iwasstronglyagainstmyfriend'snew49.However,weekslater,Ifoundmyselfstandingonatenniscourt.Awkwardly,I50aftereveryballthatheservedtome,completely51aboutninetypercentofthem,andhittingtherestintothewoodsandtheothercourt.

Thefirstfewmonthswerequite52.Butoneday,astheballcameflyingtowardme,myracketandtheballfinallymetinwhattennisplayersconsiderasthe“sweetspot(最佳击球点).”I53insurpriseasmyreturnlandedpowerfullyontheothersideofthecourt,almostexactlywhereIhadaimed.Ifinallylearnedhowtoplaytennis!

Obviously,ifIhadn'tsteppedoutsideofmycomfortzone,Iwouldhavenever54howmuchIenjoyedtennis.Ibegantotrynewthingswillinglywithasenseof55.

41.A.alwaysB.seldomC.alsoD.still

42.A.overweightB.healthyC.gratefulD.energetic

43.A.factoryB.courtC.gymD.frontier

44.A.workoutB.lookoutC.figureoutD.putout

45.A.generousB.annoyedC.relaxedD.bored

46.A.nervousB.athleticC.plainD.wealthy

47.A.forgotB.imaginedC.wroteD.intended

48.A.graduateB.composerC.fatherD.friend

49.A.documentB.suggestionC.blogD.performance

50.A.ranB.rappedC.tailoredD.roasted

51.A.buyingB.inventingC.sellingD.missing

52.A.usefulB.toughC.satisfyingD.wonderful

53.A.decoratedB.hiredC.watchedD.ignored

54.A.questionedB.arguedC.discoveredD.remembered

55.A.excitementB.humorC.responsibilityD.sadness

第二节语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

TakeawalkdownastreetinChina,especiallyaroundtheChineseNewYear.Thenyou'llseebeautifulhand-madesugarpaintingsonastickforsale.ThistraditionalChinesefolkartdatesback56.___________theMingDynasty(1368—1644).

Itdoesn'ttakemuchequipmenttosugarpaint.57_______(make)suchanartwork,theartisanscoops(舀)upthemeltedsugarandformsdesignsonthemetal.Beforetheliquidsugarbecomeshard,awoodenstickisplacedin58.________middletoturnitintoalollipop(棒棒糖)tobeseparatedfromthemetal.

Ihaven'tseenmanypeopleeattheirsugarpaintings.Perhapsit'sbecausethey're59._______(work)ofartforouradmiration.Perhapsbecausewehavemuchtastysugaryfood,thetasteofsugarpaintingsnolonger60._________(excite)us.ButduringtheMingDynasty,onlytherich61.__________powerfulcouldaffordthem.DuringtheQingDynasty,sugarpaintingswerecreatedfreehand.Andsugarpaintings62.__________(become)popularsincethen.

ThisartformisapartofChinesehistoryandproofofitspeople'screativity.Sugarpainters63._________(invite)totakepartinculturaleventsbothwithinChinaandabroadnowadays.Online,thereareeventoys64.__________(create)forkidslikea3Dpen.Ofcourse,anyone65._________isinterestedcanhaveatry.Afterall,you'recombiningadelicioustreatandart.

第四部分：写作(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

假设你是李华,请用英语给从中国太空站(TiangongSpaceStation)凯旋归来的宇航员们写一封信。内容包括：

1.对他们为太空事业做出的成就感到骄傲；

2.询问在太空站时的生活、工作情况；

3.表达关心和祝愿。

注意：

1.词数100左右；

2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。

Dearastronauts,

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

Yours,

LiHua

第二节(满分25分)

阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。

Philwasasuccessfulbusinessman.Oneday,hewentforalunchatanewrestaurant.Whilewaitingorhismeal,Phillookedatthepeopleinthepark.Suddenly,ayoungboy'sfacecaughthisattention.

"Wait,doIknowhim"hewondered.Hewalkedoutoftherestaurant.Whenheapproachedthelittleboy,hesawtheboybeggingformoney.WhenPhilsawtheboyturntowardshim,"Yes,Iknowhim!"Philthought.Philknewtheboyandhismotherverywell.

PhilwasinhissenioryearwhenMelissa,theboy'smother,joinedtheuniversityasateachingassistant.ShenetPhilwhenhisteacherswantedtomakehimleavetheuniversitybecauseofhispoorperformance.Melissastoodupforhimandaskedhisteacherstogivehimonelastchance.

PhilagreedtostudyunderMelissa'sguidanceandwasamazedtoseehowshetaughthimtheknowledgenecouldn'tfollowearlier.Heconsideredherashismentor(导师)andrespectedheralot.

Aftergraduating,PhilsetuphiscompanyandappliedtheknowledgethatMelissahadtaughthim.HequicklymadehugeprofitsandwasalwaysgratefultoMelissa.

"Hey!Whathappenedtoyourmom"Philaskedtheboy.

"Shehasn'tbeenfeelingwellforthepastyear,"theboyrepliedwhilehetriedtorecognizePhil."Thedoctorssayssheneedsimmediatesurgery(外科手术),butwecan'taffordit."

"I'msosorrytohearthat,"Philsaid.

"Wesoldeverythingweowned,"theboysaid."Wepaidforherfirstoperation,butnowwehavenothing.Sheneedsanothersurgeryassoonaspossible."

"Ican'tbelievethis,"Philsaidwhileholdingbackhistears."CanyoutakemetothehospitalIwanttomeetyourmother."

注意：

1.续写词数应为120左右；

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

TheboyagreedandjumpedintoPhil'scar.

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

PhilsatinthewaitingroombesidetheboywhilethedoctorsperformedMelissa'ssurgery,

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________榆林市2022-2023学年高一下学期7月期末考试

英语试题参考答案及评分标准

第一部分：听力(共两节,满分30分)

第一节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

1.B2.C3.A4.C5.A

第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

6.B7.A8.B9.C10.A11.A12.C13.A14.C15.C

16.B17.A18.B19.C20.C

第二部分：阅读(共两节,满分50分)

第一节(共15小题,每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)

A)21.D22.C23.B

B)24.A25.D26.B27.C

C)28.D29.B30.A31.C

D)32.C33.B34.D35.A

第二节(共5小题,每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)

36.F37.B38.A39.D40.E

第三部分：语言运用(共两节,满分30分)

第一节完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)

41.B42.A43.C44.A45.D46.B47.D48.D49.B50.A

51.D52.B53.C54.C55.A

第二节语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)

56.to57.Tomake58.the59.works60,excites

61.and62.havebecome63.areinvited64.created65.who

第四部分：写作(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

参考范文：

Dearastronauts,

Heartycongratulationsonthesuccessfulmissionandyourtriumphantreturn!I'mreallyexcitedto

tellyouhowproudIamforyourremarkableaccomplishmentsmadeinChina'sspaceexpeditions.

WithgreatcuriosityaboutyourlifeandworkinTiangongspacestation,Iamwritingtoenquireaboutyourfirst-handexperience.HowlongdidittaketoadapttotheweightlessenvironmentWasitpossibletomakevideocallstoyourfamiliesonaregularbasisAdditionally,impressedbyyourinteractionwithusstudentsin"TiangongClass",Icannothelpadmiringyourpioneeringwork,wonderingwhatittakestobeaqualifiedastronaut.Ishouldlearnfromyou,especiallyyourperseverance,resilienceanddiligence.

Wishyoualifeofhappinessandprosperity.

Yours,

LiHua

评分标准：

一、评分原则

1.本题总分为15分,按5个档次给分。

2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。

3.词数少于100或多于120的,从得分中减去2分。

4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为：内容要点应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。

5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

6.如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。

二、各档次的给分范围和要求

第五档：(14—15分)

完全完成了试题规定的任务,覆盖所有内容要点,应用了较多的语法结构和词汇,语法结构或词汇方面有个别错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言应用能力,有效地使用语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑,完全达到了预期的写作目的。

第四档：(11—13分)

完全完成了试题规定的任务。虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,少量错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。应用了简单的词句连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。

第三档：(8—10分)

基本完成了试题规定的任务。虽漏掉了一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。应用的语法结构或词汇方面有错误,但不影响理解。应用了简单的语句间连接成分,使全文的内容连贯。整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。

第二档：(5—7分)

未恰当完成试题规定的任务。漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传递给读者。

第一档：(1—4分)

未完成试题规定的任务。明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能未理解试题要求。语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。信息未能传递给读者。

0分

未能传达给读者任何信息；写作内容与题目无关或无法看清楚。

第二节(满分25分)

参考范文：

TheboyagreedandjumpedintoPhil'scar.Philtriedhisbestnottoeryonthewaytothehospital,buthecouldn'thelpit.HewasshockedtolearnaboutMelissa'sillness.Afterparkingthecar,Philfollowedtheboytothehospitalroomandtalkedtothedoctorsaboutthewoman'scondition."Ms.Melissaneedsimmediatesurgery,"thedoctorsaid."Wewillbeginthesurgeryassoonasweareready.”Philnoddedandtoldthedoctorshewouldpayforthesurgery.

PhilsatinthewaitingroombesidetheboywhilethedoctorsperformedMelissa'ssurgery.Hourslater,ateamofdoctorsandnursescameoutoftheoperationroomandtoldPhileverythingwasfine.WhenMelissagainedawareness,hersonhuggedher,"Mom,doyouknowwhopaidforyoursurgery"MelissaturnedhereyestoPhil."PhilIsthatyou"shesmiled."Yes,Ms.Melissa,"Philsmiledback."Yourfavoritestudentishere!"Withhandsholdingtogether,theytalkedabouttheirpastgooddayshappily.

评分标准：

一、评分原则：

1.总分25分；按5档给分；

2.评分时,先根据所给短文的内容和语言初步确定所属档次,然后以该档次要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分；

3.词数少于120词,总分扣除2分；

4.主要从以下4个方面考虑：

a.与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；

b.内容丰富性；

c.语法结构及词汇的丰富性和准确性；

d.上下文连贯性。

5.拼写与标点符号准确性也是评分的一个重要方面；

6.若书写较差,分数降低一档。

二、读后续写评分档次标准：

第五档(21—25分)

与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理；内容丰富；所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达；有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。

第四档(16—20分)

与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理；内容比较丰富；所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达；比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。

第三档(11—15分)

与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；写出了若干有关内容；应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义的表达；应用简单的语句

间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。

第二档(6—10分)

与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；写出了一些有关内容；语法结构单调、词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达；较少使用语句

间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。

第一档(1—5分)

与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差；产出内容太少；语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达；缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。

0分

白卷、内容太少无法判断或所写内容与所提供内容无关。

听力材料

第一节

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。